Symplectic connections are (locally) Levi-Civita connections











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I was wondering... Is every symplectic connection $nabla$
on some symplectic manifold $(M,ω)$ the Levi-Civita connection of some metric $g$ on $M$? What about the local statement?










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite
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    I was wondering... Is every symplectic connection $nabla$
    on some symplectic manifold $(M,ω)$ the Levi-Civita connection of some metric $g$ on $M$? What about the local statement?










    share|cite|improve this question







    New contributor




    Valentino is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.






















      up vote
      7
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      7
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2





      I was wondering... Is every symplectic connection $nabla$
      on some symplectic manifold $(M,ω)$ the Levi-Civita connection of some metric $g$ on $M$? What about the local statement?










      share|cite|improve this question







      New contributor




      Valentino is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      I was wondering... Is every symplectic connection $nabla$
      on some symplectic manifold $(M,ω)$ the Levi-Civita connection of some metric $g$ on $M$? What about the local statement?







      riemannian-geometry sg.symplectic-geometry connections






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      asked Nov 26 at 21:56









      Valentino

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          For any Riemannian metric $g$ on a symplectic manifold $(M, omega)$ there exists (canonical) almost complex structure $J$ making these three tensors compatible (any one can be defined by other 2). It turns out that for a Levi-Civita connection $nabla$ the equation $nabla omega = 0$ is equivalent to $J$ being integrable thus making $(M,g,omega, J)$ to be Kähler manifold. And there is plenty of symplectic manifolds which are not Kähler.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Oh, the question was so dumb! The answer for the local query is affirmative and is an immediate consequence of Darboux's theorem. Thank you, Vít Tuček!
            – Valentino
            Nov 26 at 23:39










          • Havin an easy answer doesn't make a question dumb. I think it's a good question and it's answer requires some nontrivial theorems.
            – Vít Tuček
            Nov 27 at 11:32










          • Wait... I was so excited that I didn't realize a lack of understanding of mine: why is it true that any Riemannian metric is the metric of some compatible triple?
            – Valentino
            Nov 27 at 13:40










          • See here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2084282/…
            – Paul Bryan
            yesterday










          • @Valentino I don't know! The answer is wrong as it stands as the metric $g$ is in general NOT the compatible metric for $J$ and $omega$. I will revise the answer.
            – Vít Tuček
            18 hours ago


















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          I think I've got the answer, and it is "no", even in the local case.



          When I started to try to understand the problem, I realized that to get some structure that is invariant by the connection we can (have to) fix the structure at some point and use parallel transport through picewise smooth paths to extend it. The resulting structure will be well-defined iff the initially fixed structure is invariant by the holonomy group at the point. The idea is then to construct some connection whose holonomy group at some point preserves some symplectic structure on the tangent space of the point but does not preserve any metric on such tanget space. To get the second feature, we may try to construct the connection in such a way that its holonomy group is unbounded. After some tries, I got the following:



          On $mathbb{R}^2$, we consider the connection $nabla$ given by begin{align*} nabla_{frac{partial}{partial x}}frac{partial}{partial x} & = yfrac{partial}{partial x} & nabla_{frac{partial}{partial x}}frac{partial}{partial y} & = 0 \
          nabla_{frac{partial}{partial y}}frac{partial}{partial y} & = xfrac{partial}{partial y} & nabla_{frac{partial}{partial y}}frac{partial}{partial x} & = 0.
          end{align*}



          The curvature $R$ of $nabla$ at $(0,0)$ is given by $R(frac{partial}{partial x}, frac{partial}{partial y}) = begin{bmatrix}
          -1 & 0 \
          0 & 1
          end{bmatrix} in GL(mathbb{R}^2) = GL(T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2)$
          , and all its covariant derivatives are zero at such point. Because of that and of the connectedness of $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$ (simply-connectedness of $mathbb{R}^2$), Ambrose-Singer's theorem implies that the canonical symplectic form of $T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2 = mathbb{R}^2$ is invariant by $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$. On the other hand, $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$ contains the exponential of $tR(frac{partial}{partial x}, frac{partial}{partial y})$ for every $t in mathbb{R}$, and is therefore an unbounded subset of $GL(T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2)$. As such, it doesn't fix any metric on $T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer








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            2 Answers
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            up vote
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            down vote













            For any Riemannian metric $g$ on a symplectic manifold $(M, omega)$ there exists (canonical) almost complex structure $J$ making these three tensors compatible (any one can be defined by other 2). It turns out that for a Levi-Civita connection $nabla$ the equation $nabla omega = 0$ is equivalent to $J$ being integrable thus making $(M,g,omega, J)$ to be Kähler manifold. And there is plenty of symplectic manifolds which are not Kähler.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Oh, the question was so dumb! The answer for the local query is affirmative and is an immediate consequence of Darboux's theorem. Thank you, Vít Tuček!
              – Valentino
              Nov 26 at 23:39










            • Havin an easy answer doesn't make a question dumb. I think it's a good question and it's answer requires some nontrivial theorems.
              – Vít Tuček
              Nov 27 at 11:32










            • Wait... I was so excited that I didn't realize a lack of understanding of mine: why is it true that any Riemannian metric is the metric of some compatible triple?
              – Valentino
              Nov 27 at 13:40










            • See here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2084282/…
              – Paul Bryan
              yesterday










            • @Valentino I don't know! The answer is wrong as it stands as the metric $g$ is in general NOT the compatible metric for $J$ and $omega$. I will revise the answer.
              – Vít Tuček
              18 hours ago















            up vote
            8
            down vote













            For any Riemannian metric $g$ on a symplectic manifold $(M, omega)$ there exists (canonical) almost complex structure $J$ making these three tensors compatible (any one can be defined by other 2). It turns out that for a Levi-Civita connection $nabla$ the equation $nabla omega = 0$ is equivalent to $J$ being integrable thus making $(M,g,omega, J)$ to be Kähler manifold. And there is plenty of symplectic manifolds which are not Kähler.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Oh, the question was so dumb! The answer for the local query is affirmative and is an immediate consequence of Darboux's theorem. Thank you, Vít Tuček!
              – Valentino
              Nov 26 at 23:39










            • Havin an easy answer doesn't make a question dumb. I think it's a good question and it's answer requires some nontrivial theorems.
              – Vít Tuček
              Nov 27 at 11:32










            • Wait... I was so excited that I didn't realize a lack of understanding of mine: why is it true that any Riemannian metric is the metric of some compatible triple?
              – Valentino
              Nov 27 at 13:40










            • See here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2084282/…
              – Paul Bryan
              yesterday










            • @Valentino I don't know! The answer is wrong as it stands as the metric $g$ is in general NOT the compatible metric for $J$ and $omega$. I will revise the answer.
              – Vít Tuček
              18 hours ago













            up vote
            8
            down vote










            up vote
            8
            down vote









            For any Riemannian metric $g$ on a symplectic manifold $(M, omega)$ there exists (canonical) almost complex structure $J$ making these three tensors compatible (any one can be defined by other 2). It turns out that for a Levi-Civita connection $nabla$ the equation $nabla omega = 0$ is equivalent to $J$ being integrable thus making $(M,g,omega, J)$ to be Kähler manifold. And there is plenty of symplectic manifolds which are not Kähler.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            For any Riemannian metric $g$ on a symplectic manifold $(M, omega)$ there exists (canonical) almost complex structure $J$ making these three tensors compatible (any one can be defined by other 2). It turns out that for a Levi-Civita connection $nabla$ the equation $nabla omega = 0$ is equivalent to $J$ being integrable thus making $(M,g,omega, J)$ to be Kähler manifold. And there is plenty of symplectic manifolds which are not Kähler.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 26 at 22:31









            Vít Tuček

            4,90911747




            4,90911747












            • Oh, the question was so dumb! The answer for the local query is affirmative and is an immediate consequence of Darboux's theorem. Thank you, Vít Tuček!
              – Valentino
              Nov 26 at 23:39










            • Havin an easy answer doesn't make a question dumb. I think it's a good question and it's answer requires some nontrivial theorems.
              – Vít Tuček
              Nov 27 at 11:32










            • Wait... I was so excited that I didn't realize a lack of understanding of mine: why is it true that any Riemannian metric is the metric of some compatible triple?
              – Valentino
              Nov 27 at 13:40










            • See here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2084282/…
              – Paul Bryan
              yesterday










            • @Valentino I don't know! The answer is wrong as it stands as the metric $g$ is in general NOT the compatible metric for $J$ and $omega$. I will revise the answer.
              – Vít Tuček
              18 hours ago


















            • Oh, the question was so dumb! The answer for the local query is affirmative and is an immediate consequence of Darboux's theorem. Thank you, Vít Tuček!
              – Valentino
              Nov 26 at 23:39










            • Havin an easy answer doesn't make a question dumb. I think it's a good question and it's answer requires some nontrivial theorems.
              – Vít Tuček
              Nov 27 at 11:32










            • Wait... I was so excited that I didn't realize a lack of understanding of mine: why is it true that any Riemannian metric is the metric of some compatible triple?
              – Valentino
              Nov 27 at 13:40










            • See here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2084282/…
              – Paul Bryan
              yesterday










            • @Valentino I don't know! The answer is wrong as it stands as the metric $g$ is in general NOT the compatible metric for $J$ and $omega$. I will revise the answer.
              – Vít Tuček
              18 hours ago
















            Oh, the question was so dumb! The answer for the local query is affirmative and is an immediate consequence of Darboux's theorem. Thank you, Vít Tuček!
            – Valentino
            Nov 26 at 23:39




            Oh, the question was so dumb! The answer for the local query is affirmative and is an immediate consequence of Darboux's theorem. Thank you, Vít Tuček!
            – Valentino
            Nov 26 at 23:39












            Havin an easy answer doesn't make a question dumb. I think it's a good question and it's answer requires some nontrivial theorems.
            – Vít Tuček
            Nov 27 at 11:32




            Havin an easy answer doesn't make a question dumb. I think it's a good question and it's answer requires some nontrivial theorems.
            – Vít Tuček
            Nov 27 at 11:32












            Wait... I was so excited that I didn't realize a lack of understanding of mine: why is it true that any Riemannian metric is the metric of some compatible triple?
            – Valentino
            Nov 27 at 13:40




            Wait... I was so excited that I didn't realize a lack of understanding of mine: why is it true that any Riemannian metric is the metric of some compatible triple?
            – Valentino
            Nov 27 at 13:40












            See here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2084282/…
            – Paul Bryan
            yesterday




            See here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2084282/…
            – Paul Bryan
            yesterday












            @Valentino I don't know! The answer is wrong as it stands as the metric $g$ is in general NOT the compatible metric for $J$ and $omega$. I will revise the answer.
            – Vít Tuček
            18 hours ago




            @Valentino I don't know! The answer is wrong as it stands as the metric $g$ is in general NOT the compatible metric for $J$ and $omega$. I will revise the answer.
            – Vít Tuček
            18 hours ago










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            I think I've got the answer, and it is "no", even in the local case.



            When I started to try to understand the problem, I realized that to get some structure that is invariant by the connection we can (have to) fix the structure at some point and use parallel transport through picewise smooth paths to extend it. The resulting structure will be well-defined iff the initially fixed structure is invariant by the holonomy group at the point. The idea is then to construct some connection whose holonomy group at some point preserves some symplectic structure on the tangent space of the point but does not preserve any metric on such tanget space. To get the second feature, we may try to construct the connection in such a way that its holonomy group is unbounded. After some tries, I got the following:



            On $mathbb{R}^2$, we consider the connection $nabla$ given by begin{align*} nabla_{frac{partial}{partial x}}frac{partial}{partial x} & = yfrac{partial}{partial x} & nabla_{frac{partial}{partial x}}frac{partial}{partial y} & = 0 \
            nabla_{frac{partial}{partial y}}frac{partial}{partial y} & = xfrac{partial}{partial y} & nabla_{frac{partial}{partial y}}frac{partial}{partial x} & = 0.
            end{align*}



            The curvature $R$ of $nabla$ at $(0,0)$ is given by $R(frac{partial}{partial x}, frac{partial}{partial y}) = begin{bmatrix}
            -1 & 0 \
            0 & 1
            end{bmatrix} in GL(mathbb{R}^2) = GL(T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2)$
            , and all its covariant derivatives are zero at such point. Because of that and of the connectedness of $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$ (simply-connectedness of $mathbb{R}^2$), Ambrose-Singer's theorem implies that the canonical symplectic form of $T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2 = mathbb{R}^2$ is invariant by $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$. On the other hand, $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$ contains the exponential of $tR(frac{partial}{partial x}, frac{partial}{partial y})$ for every $t in mathbb{R}$, and is therefore an unbounded subset of $GL(T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2)$. As such, it doesn't fix any metric on $T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer








            New contributor




            Valentino is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.






















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              I think I've got the answer, and it is "no", even in the local case.



              When I started to try to understand the problem, I realized that to get some structure that is invariant by the connection we can (have to) fix the structure at some point and use parallel transport through picewise smooth paths to extend it. The resulting structure will be well-defined iff the initially fixed structure is invariant by the holonomy group at the point. The idea is then to construct some connection whose holonomy group at some point preserves some symplectic structure on the tangent space of the point but does not preserve any metric on such tanget space. To get the second feature, we may try to construct the connection in such a way that its holonomy group is unbounded. After some tries, I got the following:



              On $mathbb{R}^2$, we consider the connection $nabla$ given by begin{align*} nabla_{frac{partial}{partial x}}frac{partial}{partial x} & = yfrac{partial}{partial x} & nabla_{frac{partial}{partial x}}frac{partial}{partial y} & = 0 \
              nabla_{frac{partial}{partial y}}frac{partial}{partial y} & = xfrac{partial}{partial y} & nabla_{frac{partial}{partial y}}frac{partial}{partial x} & = 0.
              end{align*}



              The curvature $R$ of $nabla$ at $(0,0)$ is given by $R(frac{partial}{partial x}, frac{partial}{partial y}) = begin{bmatrix}
              -1 & 0 \
              0 & 1
              end{bmatrix} in GL(mathbb{R}^2) = GL(T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2)$
              , and all its covariant derivatives are zero at such point. Because of that and of the connectedness of $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$ (simply-connectedness of $mathbb{R}^2$), Ambrose-Singer's theorem implies that the canonical symplectic form of $T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2 = mathbb{R}^2$ is invariant by $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$. On the other hand, $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$ contains the exponential of $tR(frac{partial}{partial x}, frac{partial}{partial y})$ for every $t in mathbb{R}$, and is therefore an unbounded subset of $GL(T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2)$. As such, it doesn't fix any metric on $T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2$.






              share|cite|improve this answer








              New contributor




              Valentino is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.




















                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                I think I've got the answer, and it is "no", even in the local case.



                When I started to try to understand the problem, I realized that to get some structure that is invariant by the connection we can (have to) fix the structure at some point and use parallel transport through picewise smooth paths to extend it. The resulting structure will be well-defined iff the initially fixed structure is invariant by the holonomy group at the point. The idea is then to construct some connection whose holonomy group at some point preserves some symplectic structure on the tangent space of the point but does not preserve any metric on such tanget space. To get the second feature, we may try to construct the connection in such a way that its holonomy group is unbounded. After some tries, I got the following:



                On $mathbb{R}^2$, we consider the connection $nabla$ given by begin{align*} nabla_{frac{partial}{partial x}}frac{partial}{partial x} & = yfrac{partial}{partial x} & nabla_{frac{partial}{partial x}}frac{partial}{partial y} & = 0 \
                nabla_{frac{partial}{partial y}}frac{partial}{partial y} & = xfrac{partial}{partial y} & nabla_{frac{partial}{partial y}}frac{partial}{partial x} & = 0.
                end{align*}



                The curvature $R$ of $nabla$ at $(0,0)$ is given by $R(frac{partial}{partial x}, frac{partial}{partial y}) = begin{bmatrix}
                -1 & 0 \
                0 & 1
                end{bmatrix} in GL(mathbb{R}^2) = GL(T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2)$
                , and all its covariant derivatives are zero at such point. Because of that and of the connectedness of $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$ (simply-connectedness of $mathbb{R}^2$), Ambrose-Singer's theorem implies that the canonical symplectic form of $T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2 = mathbb{R}^2$ is invariant by $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$. On the other hand, $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$ contains the exponential of $tR(frac{partial}{partial x}, frac{partial}{partial y})$ for every $t in mathbb{R}$, and is therefore an unbounded subset of $GL(T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2)$. As such, it doesn't fix any metric on $T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2$.






                share|cite|improve this answer








                New contributor




                Valentino is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                Check out our Code of Conduct.









                I think I've got the answer, and it is "no", even in the local case.



                When I started to try to understand the problem, I realized that to get some structure that is invariant by the connection we can (have to) fix the structure at some point and use parallel transport through picewise smooth paths to extend it. The resulting structure will be well-defined iff the initially fixed structure is invariant by the holonomy group at the point. The idea is then to construct some connection whose holonomy group at some point preserves some symplectic structure on the tangent space of the point but does not preserve any metric on such tanget space. To get the second feature, we may try to construct the connection in such a way that its holonomy group is unbounded. After some tries, I got the following:



                On $mathbb{R}^2$, we consider the connection $nabla$ given by begin{align*} nabla_{frac{partial}{partial x}}frac{partial}{partial x} & = yfrac{partial}{partial x} & nabla_{frac{partial}{partial x}}frac{partial}{partial y} & = 0 \
                nabla_{frac{partial}{partial y}}frac{partial}{partial y} & = xfrac{partial}{partial y} & nabla_{frac{partial}{partial y}}frac{partial}{partial x} & = 0.
                end{align*}



                The curvature $R$ of $nabla$ at $(0,0)$ is given by $R(frac{partial}{partial x}, frac{partial}{partial y}) = begin{bmatrix}
                -1 & 0 \
                0 & 1
                end{bmatrix} in GL(mathbb{R}^2) = GL(T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2)$
                , and all its covariant derivatives are zero at such point. Because of that and of the connectedness of $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$ (simply-connectedness of $mathbb{R}^2$), Ambrose-Singer's theorem implies that the canonical symplectic form of $T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2 = mathbb{R}^2$ is invariant by $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$. On the other hand, $Hol(nabla, (0,0))$ contains the exponential of $tR(frac{partial}{partial x}, frac{partial}{partial y})$ for every $t in mathbb{R}$, and is therefore an unbounded subset of $GL(T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2)$. As such, it doesn't fix any metric on $T_{(0,0)}mathbb{R}^2$.







                share|cite|improve this answer








                New contributor




                Valentino is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                Check out our Code of Conduct.









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                share|cite|improve this answer






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                answered 59 mins ago









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