Kind of passage to the limit in the sense of distributions












0














Suppose $B$ is a ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ with $n>1$, and $f$ a locally integrable function. Suppose $F$ is a closed set with empty interior and $M>0$ such that the distribution defined by $f$ satisfies
begin{equation}
int_{Bsetminus F}f(t)phi(t)dtleq M
end{equation}
for all test function $phi$. We know that if we had
$$f(x)leq M$$ for all $xin Bsetminus F$, we could get the same inequality by passing to the limit (supposing that $f$ is continuous); is it possible, in the same way, to circumvent around $F$ in (1) and prove that (1) holds for integrals over $B$?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Something is off in your formulation. The left-hand side of your inequality is linear with respect to $phi$, and the right-hand side is not. Then again, does $M$ depend on $x$?
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 21 '18 at 13:19










  • You are right! I got rid of $x$. How about it now?
    – M. Rahmat
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:40










  • it is better, but the point about $phi$ being only on the left-hand side still stands.
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:08










  • Yes. Constant $M$ depends on $varphi$.
    – M. Rahmat
    Nov 22 '18 at 13:34










  • Ok, how does $M$ depend on $varphi$? This information is important. Imagine that $M = |f|_{L^1(B)} |varphi|_infty$, in this case your inequality has no new information at all.
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 22 '18 at 13:38
















0














Suppose $B$ is a ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ with $n>1$, and $f$ a locally integrable function. Suppose $F$ is a closed set with empty interior and $M>0$ such that the distribution defined by $f$ satisfies
begin{equation}
int_{Bsetminus F}f(t)phi(t)dtleq M
end{equation}
for all test function $phi$. We know that if we had
$$f(x)leq M$$ for all $xin Bsetminus F$, we could get the same inequality by passing to the limit (supposing that $f$ is continuous); is it possible, in the same way, to circumvent around $F$ in (1) and prove that (1) holds for integrals over $B$?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Something is off in your formulation. The left-hand side of your inequality is linear with respect to $phi$, and the right-hand side is not. Then again, does $M$ depend on $x$?
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 21 '18 at 13:19










  • You are right! I got rid of $x$. How about it now?
    – M. Rahmat
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:40










  • it is better, but the point about $phi$ being only on the left-hand side still stands.
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:08










  • Yes. Constant $M$ depends on $varphi$.
    – M. Rahmat
    Nov 22 '18 at 13:34










  • Ok, how does $M$ depend on $varphi$? This information is important. Imagine that $M = |f|_{L^1(B)} |varphi|_infty$, in this case your inequality has no new information at all.
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 22 '18 at 13:38














0












0








0







Suppose $B$ is a ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ with $n>1$, and $f$ a locally integrable function. Suppose $F$ is a closed set with empty interior and $M>0$ such that the distribution defined by $f$ satisfies
begin{equation}
int_{Bsetminus F}f(t)phi(t)dtleq M
end{equation}
for all test function $phi$. We know that if we had
$$f(x)leq M$$ for all $xin Bsetminus F$, we could get the same inequality by passing to the limit (supposing that $f$ is continuous); is it possible, in the same way, to circumvent around $F$ in (1) and prove that (1) holds for integrals over $B$?










share|cite|improve this question















Suppose $B$ is a ball in $mathbb{R}^{n}$ with $n>1$, and $f$ a locally integrable function. Suppose $F$ is a closed set with empty interior and $M>0$ such that the distribution defined by $f$ satisfies
begin{equation}
int_{Bsetminus F}f(t)phi(t)dtleq M
end{equation}
for all test function $phi$. We know that if we had
$$f(x)leq M$$ for all $xin Bsetminus F$, we could get the same inequality by passing to the limit (supposing that $f$ is continuous); is it possible, in the same way, to circumvent around $F$ in (1) and prove that (1) holds for integrals over $B$?







real-analysis integration distribution-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 22 '18 at 4:39

























asked Nov 19 '18 at 6:29









M. Rahmat

332212




332212








  • 1




    Something is off in your formulation. The left-hand side of your inequality is linear with respect to $phi$, and the right-hand side is not. Then again, does $M$ depend on $x$?
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 21 '18 at 13:19










  • You are right! I got rid of $x$. How about it now?
    – M. Rahmat
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:40










  • it is better, but the point about $phi$ being only on the left-hand side still stands.
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:08










  • Yes. Constant $M$ depends on $varphi$.
    – M. Rahmat
    Nov 22 '18 at 13:34










  • Ok, how does $M$ depend on $varphi$? This information is important. Imagine that $M = |f|_{L^1(B)} |varphi|_infty$, in this case your inequality has no new information at all.
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 22 '18 at 13:38














  • 1




    Something is off in your formulation. The left-hand side of your inequality is linear with respect to $phi$, and the right-hand side is not. Then again, does $M$ depend on $x$?
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 21 '18 at 13:19










  • You are right! I got rid of $x$. How about it now?
    – M. Rahmat
    Nov 22 '18 at 4:40










  • it is better, but the point about $phi$ being only on the left-hand side still stands.
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:08










  • Yes. Constant $M$ depends on $varphi$.
    – M. Rahmat
    Nov 22 '18 at 13:34










  • Ok, how does $M$ depend on $varphi$? This information is important. Imagine that $M = |f|_{L^1(B)} |varphi|_infty$, in this case your inequality has no new information at all.
    – TZakrevskiy
    Nov 22 '18 at 13:38








1




1




Something is off in your formulation. The left-hand side of your inequality is linear with respect to $phi$, and the right-hand side is not. Then again, does $M$ depend on $x$?
– TZakrevskiy
Nov 21 '18 at 13:19




Something is off in your formulation. The left-hand side of your inequality is linear with respect to $phi$, and the right-hand side is not. Then again, does $M$ depend on $x$?
– TZakrevskiy
Nov 21 '18 at 13:19












You are right! I got rid of $x$. How about it now?
– M. Rahmat
Nov 22 '18 at 4:40




You are right! I got rid of $x$. How about it now?
– M. Rahmat
Nov 22 '18 at 4:40












it is better, but the point about $phi$ being only on the left-hand side still stands.
– TZakrevskiy
Nov 22 '18 at 7:08




it is better, but the point about $phi$ being only on the left-hand side still stands.
– TZakrevskiy
Nov 22 '18 at 7:08












Yes. Constant $M$ depends on $varphi$.
– M. Rahmat
Nov 22 '18 at 13:34




Yes. Constant $M$ depends on $varphi$.
– M. Rahmat
Nov 22 '18 at 13:34












Ok, how does $M$ depend on $varphi$? This information is important. Imagine that $M = |f|_{L^1(B)} |varphi|_infty$, in this case your inequality has no new information at all.
– TZakrevskiy
Nov 22 '18 at 13:38




Ok, how does $M$ depend on $varphi$? This information is important. Imagine that $M = |f|_{L^1(B)} |varphi|_infty$, in this case your inequality has no new information at all.
– TZakrevskiy
Nov 22 '18 at 13:38















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