What is the mean of a random number with one exclusive bound?











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If I have a random number between 0 and 1 inclusive, the mean is 0.5. If both are exclusive, the distance from 0.5 to 0 and 0.5 to 1 are the same, so 0.5 is still the mean. But if 0 is inclusive and 1 is exclusive, would the mean be 0.5? After all, there is still the tiniest chance that it could be 0, while there is no chance of it being 1. I would think this would be $0.4overline{9}$, but then I remembered that $0.overline{9} = 1$, so would $0.4overline{9} = 0.5$?










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    Yea its still 0.5. A countable change won't change the mean of an uncountable set. Also, hi from PPCG!
    – Rushabh Mehta
    Nov 15 at 3:55















up vote
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down vote

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If I have a random number between 0 and 1 inclusive, the mean is 0.5. If both are exclusive, the distance from 0.5 to 0 and 0.5 to 1 are the same, so 0.5 is still the mean. But if 0 is inclusive and 1 is exclusive, would the mean be 0.5? After all, there is still the tiniest chance that it could be 0, while there is no chance of it being 1. I would think this would be $0.4overline{9}$, but then I remembered that $0.overline{9} = 1$, so would $0.4overline{9} = 0.5$?










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Redwolf Programs is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • 1




    Yea its still 0.5. A countable change won't change the mean of an uncountable set. Also, hi from PPCG!
    – Rushabh Mehta
    Nov 15 at 3:55













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up vote
0
down vote

favorite











If I have a random number between 0 and 1 inclusive, the mean is 0.5. If both are exclusive, the distance from 0.5 to 0 and 0.5 to 1 are the same, so 0.5 is still the mean. But if 0 is inclusive and 1 is exclusive, would the mean be 0.5? After all, there is still the tiniest chance that it could be 0, while there is no chance of it being 1. I would think this would be $0.4overline{9}$, but then I remembered that $0.overline{9} = 1$, so would $0.4overline{9} = 0.5$?










share|cite|improve this question







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Redwolf Programs is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











If I have a random number between 0 and 1 inclusive, the mean is 0.5. If both are exclusive, the distance from 0.5 to 0 and 0.5 to 1 are the same, so 0.5 is still the mean. But if 0 is inclusive and 1 is exclusive, would the mean be 0.5? After all, there is still the tiniest chance that it could be 0, while there is no chance of it being 1. I would think this would be $0.4overline{9}$, but then I remembered that $0.overline{9} = 1$, so would $0.4overline{9} = 0.5$?







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asked Nov 15 at 3:39









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  • 1




    Yea its still 0.5. A countable change won't change the mean of an uncountable set. Also, hi from PPCG!
    – Rushabh Mehta
    Nov 15 at 3:55














  • 1




    Yea its still 0.5. A countable change won't change the mean of an uncountable set. Also, hi from PPCG!
    – Rushabh Mehta
    Nov 15 at 3:55








1




1




Yea its still 0.5. A countable change won't change the mean of an uncountable set. Also, hi from PPCG!
– Rushabh Mehta
Nov 15 at 3:55




Yea its still 0.5. A countable change won't change the mean of an uncountable set. Also, hi from PPCG!
– Rushabh Mehta
Nov 15 at 3:55















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