If $(k_n)$ is a sequence in $K subseteq mathbb{R}$ such that $k_n to k_0 notin K$, then there exists an...











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Here's the question:




Let $Ksubseteq mathbb{R}$ and suppose that there exists a sequence
$(k_n)$ in $K$ that converges to a number $k_0 notin K$. Show that
there is an unbounded continuous function on $K$.




Here's the function I choose: $fcolon K to mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x)=frac{1}{k_0 - x}$. Clearly, f is continuous and it remains to show $f$ is unbounded. Suppose that $f$ is bounded i.e. $|f(x)|< M$ for all $x in K$ (also for some $M>0$). This means that that $|f(k_n)| < M $ for all $n in mathbb{N}$. Hence, $lim |f(k_n)| le M$ but then this is a contradiction since $lim |f(k_n)| = +infty$.



Is this proof okay? And I've chosen my codomain to be the $mathbb{R}$ and is that fine?










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  • 3




    yes, that looks fine.
    – Thomas
    Jul 1 at 9:44

















up vote
4
down vote

favorite












Here's the question:




Let $Ksubseteq mathbb{R}$ and suppose that there exists a sequence
$(k_n)$ in $K$ that converges to a number $k_0 notin K$. Show that
there is an unbounded continuous function on $K$.




Here's the function I choose: $fcolon K to mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x)=frac{1}{k_0 - x}$. Clearly, f is continuous and it remains to show $f$ is unbounded. Suppose that $f$ is bounded i.e. $|f(x)|< M$ for all $x in K$ (also for some $M>0$). This means that that $|f(k_n)| < M $ for all $n in mathbb{N}$. Hence, $lim |f(k_n)| le M$ but then this is a contradiction since $lim |f(k_n)| = +infty$.



Is this proof okay? And I've chosen my codomain to be the $mathbb{R}$ and is that fine?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 3




    yes, that looks fine.
    – Thomas
    Jul 1 at 9:44















up vote
4
down vote

favorite









up vote
4
down vote

favorite











Here's the question:




Let $Ksubseteq mathbb{R}$ and suppose that there exists a sequence
$(k_n)$ in $K$ that converges to a number $k_0 notin K$. Show that
there is an unbounded continuous function on $K$.




Here's the function I choose: $fcolon K to mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x)=frac{1}{k_0 - x}$. Clearly, f is continuous and it remains to show $f$ is unbounded. Suppose that $f$ is bounded i.e. $|f(x)|< M$ for all $x in K$ (also for some $M>0$). This means that that $|f(k_n)| < M $ for all $n in mathbb{N}$. Hence, $lim |f(k_n)| le M$ but then this is a contradiction since $lim |f(k_n)| = +infty$.



Is this proof okay? And I've chosen my codomain to be the $mathbb{R}$ and is that fine?










share|cite|improve this question















Here's the question:




Let $Ksubseteq mathbb{R}$ and suppose that there exists a sequence
$(k_n)$ in $K$ that converges to a number $k_0 notin K$. Show that
there is an unbounded continuous function on $K$.




Here's the function I choose: $fcolon K to mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x)=frac{1}{k_0 - x}$. Clearly, f is continuous and it remains to show $f$ is unbounded. Suppose that $f$ is bounded i.e. $|f(x)|< M$ for all $x in K$ (also for some $M>0$). This means that that $|f(k_n)| < M $ for all $n in mathbb{N}$. Hence, $lim |f(k_n)| le M$ but then this is a contradiction since $lim |f(k_n)| = +infty$.



Is this proof okay? And I've chosen my codomain to be the $mathbb{R}$ and is that fine?







real-analysis sequences-and-series proof-verification continuity






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edited Nov 17 at 5:59









Brahadeesh

5,78441957




5,78441957










asked Jul 1 at 9:40









Ashish K

775513




775513








  • 3




    yes, that looks fine.
    – Thomas
    Jul 1 at 9:44
















  • 3




    yes, that looks fine.
    – Thomas
    Jul 1 at 9:44










3




3




yes, that looks fine.
– Thomas
Jul 1 at 9:44






yes, that looks fine.
– Thomas
Jul 1 at 9:44












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Yes, it is correct. But you don't need to do it by contradiction. Given $Minmathbb{R}^+$, there is some $ninmathbb N$ such that $|k_0-k_n|<frac1M$. And this means that $bigl|f(k_n)bigr|>M$. Since this occurs for every $Minmathbb{R}^+$, $f$ is unbounded.






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    accepted










    Yes, it is correct. But you don't need to do it by contradiction. Given $Minmathbb{R}^+$, there is some $ninmathbb N$ such that $|k_0-k_n|<frac1M$. And this means that $bigl|f(k_n)bigr|>M$. Since this occurs for every $Minmathbb{R}^+$, $f$ is unbounded.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      Yes, it is correct. But you don't need to do it by contradiction. Given $Minmathbb{R}^+$, there is some $ninmathbb N$ such that $|k_0-k_n|<frac1M$. And this means that $bigl|f(k_n)bigr|>M$. Since this occurs for every $Minmathbb{R}^+$, $f$ is unbounded.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted






        Yes, it is correct. But you don't need to do it by contradiction. Given $Minmathbb{R}^+$, there is some $ninmathbb N$ such that $|k_0-k_n|<frac1M$. And this means that $bigl|f(k_n)bigr|>M$. Since this occurs for every $Minmathbb{R}^+$, $f$ is unbounded.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Yes, it is correct. But you don't need to do it by contradiction. Given $Minmathbb{R}^+$, there is some $ninmathbb N$ such that $|k_0-k_n|<frac1M$. And this means that $bigl|f(k_n)bigr|>M$. Since this occurs for every $Minmathbb{R}^+$, $f$ is unbounded.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jul 1 at 9:55









        José Carlos Santos

        142k20112208




        142k20112208






























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