If there are $2$ linearly independent vectors $x,y in X$ such that $||x+y||=||x||+||y||$, then the unit...











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Let $S(X)= {x in X: ||x||=1}$ be the unit sphere in $X$. Assume that there are $x,yin X$ linearly independent such that $||x+y||=||x||+||y||$. Prove that $S(X)$ contains the following set:$[x,y]={zin X: z=tx+(1-t)y, tin [0,1]}$ for some $x,y$.




So it is obvious that I need to use the $x,y$ that are given to be linearly independent and form a $[x,y]$ in $S(X)$ but I don't know how to start.










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  • 1




    The title and the question body ask for different things.
    – Martin R
    Nov 17 at 21:44










  • Is $X$ a Hilbert space?
    – A.Γ.
    Nov 17 at 21:59










  • @Martin R Edited.
    – ChikChak
    Nov 17 at 22:25










  • @A.Γ. No, not necessarily.
    – ChikChak
    Nov 17 at 22:26






  • 1




    Possibly related: math.stackexchange.com/q/2094782/42969
    – Martin R
    Nov 18 at 1:39

















up vote
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down vote

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Let $S(X)= {x in X: ||x||=1}$ be the unit sphere in $X$. Assume that there are $x,yin X$ linearly independent such that $||x+y||=||x||+||y||$. Prove that $S(X)$ contains the following set:$[x,y]={zin X: z=tx+(1-t)y, tin [0,1]}$ for some $x,y$.




So it is obvious that I need to use the $x,y$ that are given to be linearly independent and form a $[x,y]$ in $S(X)$ but I don't know how to start.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    The title and the question body ask for different things.
    – Martin R
    Nov 17 at 21:44










  • Is $X$ a Hilbert space?
    – A.Γ.
    Nov 17 at 21:59










  • @Martin R Edited.
    – ChikChak
    Nov 17 at 22:25










  • @A.Γ. No, not necessarily.
    – ChikChak
    Nov 17 at 22:26






  • 1




    Possibly related: math.stackexchange.com/q/2094782/42969
    – Martin R
    Nov 18 at 1:39















up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1






1






Let $S(X)= {x in X: ||x||=1}$ be the unit sphere in $X$. Assume that there are $x,yin X$ linearly independent such that $||x+y||=||x||+||y||$. Prove that $S(X)$ contains the following set:$[x,y]={zin X: z=tx+(1-t)y, tin [0,1]}$ for some $x,y$.




So it is obvious that I need to use the $x,y$ that are given to be linearly independent and form a $[x,y]$ in $S(X)$ but I don't know how to start.










share|cite|improve this question
















Let $S(X)= {x in X: ||x||=1}$ be the unit sphere in $X$. Assume that there are $x,yin X$ linearly independent such that $||x+y||=||x||+||y||$. Prove that $S(X)$ contains the following set:$[x,y]={zin X: z=tx+(1-t)y, tin [0,1]}$ for some $x,y$.




So it is obvious that I need to use the $x,y$ that are given to be linearly independent and form a $[x,y]$ in $S(X)$ but I don't know how to start.







linear-algebra normed-spaces multilinear-algebra spheres






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edited Nov 17 at 23:09









A.Γ.

21.2k22455




21.2k22455










asked Nov 17 at 21:29









ChikChak

769418




769418








  • 1




    The title and the question body ask for different things.
    – Martin R
    Nov 17 at 21:44










  • Is $X$ a Hilbert space?
    – A.Γ.
    Nov 17 at 21:59










  • @Martin R Edited.
    – ChikChak
    Nov 17 at 22:25










  • @A.Γ. No, not necessarily.
    – ChikChak
    Nov 17 at 22:26






  • 1




    Possibly related: math.stackexchange.com/q/2094782/42969
    – Martin R
    Nov 18 at 1:39
















  • 1




    The title and the question body ask for different things.
    – Martin R
    Nov 17 at 21:44










  • Is $X$ a Hilbert space?
    – A.Γ.
    Nov 17 at 21:59










  • @Martin R Edited.
    – ChikChak
    Nov 17 at 22:25










  • @A.Γ. No, not necessarily.
    – ChikChak
    Nov 17 at 22:26






  • 1




    Possibly related: math.stackexchange.com/q/2094782/42969
    – Martin R
    Nov 18 at 1:39










1




1




The title and the question body ask for different things.
– Martin R
Nov 17 at 21:44




The title and the question body ask for different things.
– Martin R
Nov 17 at 21:44












Is $X$ a Hilbert space?
– A.Γ.
Nov 17 at 21:59




Is $X$ a Hilbert space?
– A.Γ.
Nov 17 at 21:59












@Martin R Edited.
– ChikChak
Nov 17 at 22:25




@Martin R Edited.
– ChikChak
Nov 17 at 22:25












@A.Γ. No, not necessarily.
– ChikChak
Nov 17 at 22:26




@A.Γ. No, not necessarily.
– ChikChak
Nov 17 at 22:26




1




1




Possibly related: math.stackexchange.com/q/2094782/42969
– Martin R
Nov 18 at 1:39






Possibly related: math.stackexchange.com/q/2094782/42969
– Martin R
Nov 18 at 1:39












5 Answers
5






active

oldest

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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










This is similar to user1551's answer, but a little simpler.



For the given $x, y$, and all $lambda,mu geqslant 0$, we have
as usual
$$
|lambda x + mu y| leqslant lambda|x| + mu|y|,
$$

but also
begin{align*}
(lambda + mu)(|x| + |y|) & = (lambda + mu)(|x + y|) \
& = |(lambda + mu)(x + y)| \
& = |(lambda x + mu y) + mu x + lambda y| \
& leqslant |lambda x + mu y| + mu|x| + lambda|y|,
end{align*}

therefore
$$
|lambda x + mu y| geqslant lambda|x| + mu|y|,
$$

therefore
$$
boxed{|lambda x + mu y| = lambda|x| + mu|y|}
$$

Putting $hat{x} = x/|x|$, $hat{y} = y/|y|$, we have
$hat{x} ne hat{y}$, $|hat{x}| = |hat{y}| = 1$, and if
$0 leqslant t leqslant 1$,
begin{align*}
|that{x} + (1 - t)hat{y}| & =
leftlVertfrac{t}{|x|}x + frac{1 - t}{|y|}yrightrVert \
& = frac{t}{|x|}|x| + frac{1 - t}{|y|}|y| \
& = 1.
end{align*}






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    up vote
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    Define
    $$
    phi(alpha)=|x+alpha y|-|x|-alpha|y|,quad alphage 0.
    $$

    It is a convex function, $phi(alpha)le 0$ and $phi(0)=phi(1)=0$. Then from convexity $phi(alpha)=0$, $forallalphage 0$. Hence,
    $$
    |x+alpha y|=|x|+alpha|y|,quad forallalphage 0.
    $$

    Now define
    $$
    hat x=frac{x}{|x|},quad hat y=frac{y}{|y|},quad
    t=frac{|x|}{|x|+alpha|y|}in(0,1].
    $$

    We have
    $$
    |that x+(1-t)hat y|=1.
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      0
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      Pick an arbitrary $pin[frac12,1]$ and let $q=1-pin[0,frac12]$. Then
      begin{align}
      |x|+|y| = |x+y|
      &= |(px+qy)+(qx+py)|\
      &le |px+qy|+|qx+py|\
      &le(|px|+|qy|)+(|py|+|qx|)tag{1}\
      &=(p|x|+q|y|)+(p|y|+q|x|)\
      &=|x|+|y|
      end{align}

      and hence equalities must hold in $(1)$. Therefore, $|px+(1-p)y|=|px|+|(1-p)y|=p|x|+(1-p)|y|$ for every $pin[0,1]$.



      Consequently, $|ax+by|=a|x|+b|y|$ for every $a,bge0$. As $x,y$ are linearly independent, they are nonzero and we may normalise them to unit vectors $u=frac{x}{|x|}$ and $v=frac{y}{|y|}$. By absorbing $|x|,|y|$ into $a,b$ respectively, we obtain $|au+bv|=a+b$ for every $a,bge0$. In particular, when $a=tin[0,1]$ and $b=1-t$, we have $[u,v]subset S(X)$.






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        From $|x+y|=|x|+|y|$,
        $$|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=|x+y|^2=|x|^2+|y|^2+2langle x,yrangle,$$
        hence $langle x,yrangle =|x||y|$.
        Then
        $$|ax+by|^2=a^2|x|^2+b^2|y|^2+2ablangle x,yrangle =a^2|x|^2+b^2|y|^2+2ab|x||y|=(a|x|+b|y|)^2,$$
        i.e.,
        $$ |ax+by|=a|x|+b|y|.$$
        In particular, with $a=frac t{|x|}$ and $b=frac{1-t}{|y|}$,
        $$ left|tfrac{x}{|x|}+(1-t)frac{y}{|y|}right|=1.$$






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        • 2




          Just an observation: If $langle x, y rangle = Vert x VertVert yVert$, then Cauchy-Schwarz implies that $x$ and $y$ are scalar multiples of eachother, and hence not linearly independent. Maybe such $x$ and $y$ cannot exist in an inner product space? Or the observation is faulty perhaps?
          – MisterRiemann
          Nov 17 at 22:38












        • In an inner product space $|x+y|=||x|+|y|$, $xneq 0$ implies $x=cy$ with $c >0$.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Nov 17 at 23:55












        • It may be not an inner product space to begin with.
          – Nyfiken
          Nov 21 at 17:55


















        up vote
        -1
        down vote













        Let's say we have a closed, bounded, convex region $R$ in the plane. Suppose that




        • distinct points $O$, $A$, $B$, and $C$ lie in $R$,


        • $A$, $B$, and $C$ lie on the boundary and $O$ lies on the interior, and


        • $C$ lies on line segment $AB$.


        Then the whole of line segment $AB$ lies on the boundary $R$. For suppose to the contrary that some point $D$ on $AB$ does not: then ray $OD$ strikes the boundary of $R$ at some distinct point $E$, since $R$ is bounded, and all of segments $BE$ and $EA$ lie in $R$. Assume without loss of generality that $D$ is between $B$ and $C$. Then ray $OC$ strikes segment $EA$ at some point $F$ and $C$ lies between $O$ and $F$. But that's impossible, since that would put $C$ on the interior of $R$.



        To map back to the original problem: the plane in question is the span of $x$ and $y$, $O$ is the zero vector, $A$ is $x/lVert x rVert$, $B$ is $y/lVert y rVert$, $C$ is $(x+y)/lVert x + yrVert$, and $R$ is the restriction of the closed unit ball to the span of $x$ and $y$.



        Norm as Minkowski functional






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          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes








          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          This is similar to user1551's answer, but a little simpler.



          For the given $x, y$, and all $lambda,mu geqslant 0$, we have
          as usual
          $$
          |lambda x + mu y| leqslant lambda|x| + mu|y|,
          $$

          but also
          begin{align*}
          (lambda + mu)(|x| + |y|) & = (lambda + mu)(|x + y|) \
          & = |(lambda + mu)(x + y)| \
          & = |(lambda x + mu y) + mu x + lambda y| \
          & leqslant |lambda x + mu y| + mu|x| + lambda|y|,
          end{align*}

          therefore
          $$
          |lambda x + mu y| geqslant lambda|x| + mu|y|,
          $$

          therefore
          $$
          boxed{|lambda x + mu y| = lambda|x| + mu|y|}
          $$

          Putting $hat{x} = x/|x|$, $hat{y} = y/|y|$, we have
          $hat{x} ne hat{y}$, $|hat{x}| = |hat{y}| = 1$, and if
          $0 leqslant t leqslant 1$,
          begin{align*}
          |that{x} + (1 - t)hat{y}| & =
          leftlVertfrac{t}{|x|}x + frac{1 - t}{|y|}yrightrVert \
          & = frac{t}{|x|}|x| + frac{1 - t}{|y|}|y| \
          & = 1.
          end{align*}






          share|cite|improve this answer

























            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            This is similar to user1551's answer, but a little simpler.



            For the given $x, y$, and all $lambda,mu geqslant 0$, we have
            as usual
            $$
            |lambda x + mu y| leqslant lambda|x| + mu|y|,
            $$

            but also
            begin{align*}
            (lambda + mu)(|x| + |y|) & = (lambda + mu)(|x + y|) \
            & = |(lambda + mu)(x + y)| \
            & = |(lambda x + mu y) + mu x + lambda y| \
            & leqslant |lambda x + mu y| + mu|x| + lambda|y|,
            end{align*}

            therefore
            $$
            |lambda x + mu y| geqslant lambda|x| + mu|y|,
            $$

            therefore
            $$
            boxed{|lambda x + mu y| = lambda|x| + mu|y|}
            $$

            Putting $hat{x} = x/|x|$, $hat{y} = y/|y|$, we have
            $hat{x} ne hat{y}$, $|hat{x}| = |hat{y}| = 1$, and if
            $0 leqslant t leqslant 1$,
            begin{align*}
            |that{x} + (1 - t)hat{y}| & =
            leftlVertfrac{t}{|x|}x + frac{1 - t}{|y|}yrightrVert \
            & = frac{t}{|x|}|x| + frac{1 - t}{|y|}|y| \
            & = 1.
            end{align*}






            share|cite|improve this answer























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted






              This is similar to user1551's answer, but a little simpler.



              For the given $x, y$, and all $lambda,mu geqslant 0$, we have
              as usual
              $$
              |lambda x + mu y| leqslant lambda|x| + mu|y|,
              $$

              but also
              begin{align*}
              (lambda + mu)(|x| + |y|) & = (lambda + mu)(|x + y|) \
              & = |(lambda + mu)(x + y)| \
              & = |(lambda x + mu y) + mu x + lambda y| \
              & leqslant |lambda x + mu y| + mu|x| + lambda|y|,
              end{align*}

              therefore
              $$
              |lambda x + mu y| geqslant lambda|x| + mu|y|,
              $$

              therefore
              $$
              boxed{|lambda x + mu y| = lambda|x| + mu|y|}
              $$

              Putting $hat{x} = x/|x|$, $hat{y} = y/|y|$, we have
              $hat{x} ne hat{y}$, $|hat{x}| = |hat{y}| = 1$, and if
              $0 leqslant t leqslant 1$,
              begin{align*}
              |that{x} + (1 - t)hat{y}| & =
              leftlVertfrac{t}{|x|}x + frac{1 - t}{|y|}yrightrVert \
              & = frac{t}{|x|}|x| + frac{1 - t}{|y|}|y| \
              & = 1.
              end{align*}






              share|cite|improve this answer












              This is similar to user1551's answer, but a little simpler.



              For the given $x, y$, and all $lambda,mu geqslant 0$, we have
              as usual
              $$
              |lambda x + mu y| leqslant lambda|x| + mu|y|,
              $$

              but also
              begin{align*}
              (lambda + mu)(|x| + |y|) & = (lambda + mu)(|x + y|) \
              & = |(lambda + mu)(x + y)| \
              & = |(lambda x + mu y) + mu x + lambda y| \
              & leqslant |lambda x + mu y| + mu|x| + lambda|y|,
              end{align*}

              therefore
              $$
              |lambda x + mu y| geqslant lambda|x| + mu|y|,
              $$

              therefore
              $$
              boxed{|lambda x + mu y| = lambda|x| + mu|y|}
              $$

              Putting $hat{x} = x/|x|$, $hat{y} = y/|y|$, we have
              $hat{x} ne hat{y}$, $|hat{x}| = |hat{y}| = 1$, and if
              $0 leqslant t leqslant 1$,
              begin{align*}
              |that{x} + (1 - t)hat{y}| & =
              leftlVertfrac{t}{|x|}x + frac{1 - t}{|y|}yrightrVert \
              & = frac{t}{|x|}|x| + frac{1 - t}{|y|}|y| \
              & = 1.
              end{align*}







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              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Nov 18 at 11:36









              Calum Gilhooley

              4,052529




              4,052529






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote













                  Define
                  $$
                  phi(alpha)=|x+alpha y|-|x|-alpha|y|,quad alphage 0.
                  $$

                  It is a convex function, $phi(alpha)le 0$ and $phi(0)=phi(1)=0$. Then from convexity $phi(alpha)=0$, $forallalphage 0$. Hence,
                  $$
                  |x+alpha y|=|x|+alpha|y|,quad forallalphage 0.
                  $$

                  Now define
                  $$
                  hat x=frac{x}{|x|},quad hat y=frac{y}{|y|},quad
                  t=frac{|x|}{|x|+alpha|y|}in(0,1].
                  $$

                  We have
                  $$
                  |that x+(1-t)hat y|=1.
                  $$






                  share|cite|improve this answer

























                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    Define
                    $$
                    phi(alpha)=|x+alpha y|-|x|-alpha|y|,quad alphage 0.
                    $$

                    It is a convex function, $phi(alpha)le 0$ and $phi(0)=phi(1)=0$. Then from convexity $phi(alpha)=0$, $forallalphage 0$. Hence,
                    $$
                    |x+alpha y|=|x|+alpha|y|,quad forallalphage 0.
                    $$

                    Now define
                    $$
                    hat x=frac{x}{|x|},quad hat y=frac{y}{|y|},quad
                    t=frac{|x|}{|x|+alpha|y|}in(0,1].
                    $$

                    We have
                    $$
                    |that x+(1-t)hat y|=1.
                    $$






                    share|cite|improve this answer























                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote









                      Define
                      $$
                      phi(alpha)=|x+alpha y|-|x|-alpha|y|,quad alphage 0.
                      $$

                      It is a convex function, $phi(alpha)le 0$ and $phi(0)=phi(1)=0$. Then from convexity $phi(alpha)=0$, $forallalphage 0$. Hence,
                      $$
                      |x+alpha y|=|x|+alpha|y|,quad forallalphage 0.
                      $$

                      Now define
                      $$
                      hat x=frac{x}{|x|},quad hat y=frac{y}{|y|},quad
                      t=frac{|x|}{|x|+alpha|y|}in(0,1].
                      $$

                      We have
                      $$
                      |that x+(1-t)hat y|=1.
                      $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      Define
                      $$
                      phi(alpha)=|x+alpha y|-|x|-alpha|y|,quad alphage 0.
                      $$

                      It is a convex function, $phi(alpha)le 0$ and $phi(0)=phi(1)=0$. Then from convexity $phi(alpha)=0$, $forallalphage 0$. Hence,
                      $$
                      |x+alpha y|=|x|+alpha|y|,quad forallalphage 0.
                      $$

                      Now define
                      $$
                      hat x=frac{x}{|x|},quad hat y=frac{y}{|y|},quad
                      t=frac{|x|}{|x|+alpha|y|}in(0,1].
                      $$

                      We have
                      $$
                      |that x+(1-t)hat y|=1.
                      $$







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Nov 18 at 0:32









                      A.Γ.

                      21.2k22455




                      21.2k22455






















                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          Pick an arbitrary $pin[frac12,1]$ and let $q=1-pin[0,frac12]$. Then
                          begin{align}
                          |x|+|y| = |x+y|
                          &= |(px+qy)+(qx+py)|\
                          &le |px+qy|+|qx+py|\
                          &le(|px|+|qy|)+(|py|+|qx|)tag{1}\
                          &=(p|x|+q|y|)+(p|y|+q|x|)\
                          &=|x|+|y|
                          end{align}

                          and hence equalities must hold in $(1)$. Therefore, $|px+(1-p)y|=|px|+|(1-p)y|=p|x|+(1-p)|y|$ for every $pin[0,1]$.



                          Consequently, $|ax+by|=a|x|+b|y|$ for every $a,bge0$. As $x,y$ are linearly independent, they are nonzero and we may normalise them to unit vectors $u=frac{x}{|x|}$ and $v=frac{y}{|y|}$. By absorbing $|x|,|y|$ into $a,b$ respectively, we obtain $|au+bv|=a+b$ for every $a,bge0$. In particular, when $a=tin[0,1]$ and $b=1-t$, we have $[u,v]subset S(X)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer



























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote













                            Pick an arbitrary $pin[frac12,1]$ and let $q=1-pin[0,frac12]$. Then
                            begin{align}
                            |x|+|y| = |x+y|
                            &= |(px+qy)+(qx+py)|\
                            &le |px+qy|+|qx+py|\
                            &le(|px|+|qy|)+(|py|+|qx|)tag{1}\
                            &=(p|x|+q|y|)+(p|y|+q|x|)\
                            &=|x|+|y|
                            end{align}

                            and hence equalities must hold in $(1)$. Therefore, $|px+(1-p)y|=|px|+|(1-p)y|=p|x|+(1-p)|y|$ for every $pin[0,1]$.



                            Consequently, $|ax+by|=a|x|+b|y|$ for every $a,bge0$. As $x,y$ are linearly independent, they are nonzero and we may normalise them to unit vectors $u=frac{x}{|x|}$ and $v=frac{y}{|y|}$. By absorbing $|x|,|y|$ into $a,b$ respectively, we obtain $|au+bv|=a+b$ for every $a,bge0$. In particular, when $a=tin[0,1]$ and $b=1-t$, we have $[u,v]subset S(X)$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer

























                              up vote
                              0
                              down vote










                              up vote
                              0
                              down vote









                              Pick an arbitrary $pin[frac12,1]$ and let $q=1-pin[0,frac12]$. Then
                              begin{align}
                              |x|+|y| = |x+y|
                              &= |(px+qy)+(qx+py)|\
                              &le |px+qy|+|qx+py|\
                              &le(|px|+|qy|)+(|py|+|qx|)tag{1}\
                              &=(p|x|+q|y|)+(p|y|+q|x|)\
                              &=|x|+|y|
                              end{align}

                              and hence equalities must hold in $(1)$. Therefore, $|px+(1-p)y|=|px|+|(1-p)y|=p|x|+(1-p)|y|$ for every $pin[0,1]$.



                              Consequently, $|ax+by|=a|x|+b|y|$ for every $a,bge0$. As $x,y$ are linearly independent, they are nonzero and we may normalise them to unit vectors $u=frac{x}{|x|}$ and $v=frac{y}{|y|}$. By absorbing $|x|,|y|$ into $a,b$ respectively, we obtain $|au+bv|=a+b$ for every $a,bge0$. In particular, when $a=tin[0,1]$ and $b=1-t$, we have $[u,v]subset S(X)$.






                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              Pick an arbitrary $pin[frac12,1]$ and let $q=1-pin[0,frac12]$. Then
                              begin{align}
                              |x|+|y| = |x+y|
                              &= |(px+qy)+(qx+py)|\
                              &le |px+qy|+|qx+py|\
                              &le(|px|+|qy|)+(|py|+|qx|)tag{1}\
                              &=(p|x|+q|y|)+(p|y|+q|x|)\
                              &=|x|+|y|
                              end{align}

                              and hence equalities must hold in $(1)$. Therefore, $|px+(1-p)y|=|px|+|(1-p)y|=p|x|+(1-p)|y|$ for every $pin[0,1]$.



                              Consequently, $|ax+by|=a|x|+b|y|$ for every $a,bge0$. As $x,y$ are linearly independent, they are nonzero and we may normalise them to unit vectors $u=frac{x}{|x|}$ and $v=frac{y}{|y|}$. By absorbing $|x|,|y|$ into $a,b$ respectively, we obtain $|au+bv|=a+b$ for every $a,bge0$. In particular, when $a=tin[0,1]$ and $b=1-t$, we have $[u,v]subset S(X)$.







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Nov 18 at 0:40

























                              answered Nov 18 at 0:30









                              user1551

                              70.5k566125




                              70.5k566125






















                                  up vote
                                  -1
                                  down vote













                                  From $|x+y|=|x|+|y|$,
                                  $$|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=|x+y|^2=|x|^2+|y|^2+2langle x,yrangle,$$
                                  hence $langle x,yrangle =|x||y|$.
                                  Then
                                  $$|ax+by|^2=a^2|x|^2+b^2|y|^2+2ablangle x,yrangle =a^2|x|^2+b^2|y|^2+2ab|x||y|=(a|x|+b|y|)^2,$$
                                  i.e.,
                                  $$ |ax+by|=a|x|+b|y|.$$
                                  In particular, with $a=frac t{|x|}$ and $b=frac{1-t}{|y|}$,
                                  $$ left|tfrac{x}{|x|}+(1-t)frac{y}{|y|}right|=1.$$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer

















                                  • 2




                                    Just an observation: If $langle x, y rangle = Vert x VertVert yVert$, then Cauchy-Schwarz implies that $x$ and $y$ are scalar multiples of eachother, and hence not linearly independent. Maybe such $x$ and $y$ cannot exist in an inner product space? Or the observation is faulty perhaps?
                                    – MisterRiemann
                                    Nov 17 at 22:38












                                  • In an inner product space $|x+y|=||x|+|y|$, $xneq 0$ implies $x=cy$ with $c >0$.
                                    – Kavi Rama Murthy
                                    Nov 17 at 23:55












                                  • It may be not an inner product space to begin with.
                                    – Nyfiken
                                    Nov 21 at 17:55















                                  up vote
                                  -1
                                  down vote













                                  From $|x+y|=|x|+|y|$,
                                  $$|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=|x+y|^2=|x|^2+|y|^2+2langle x,yrangle,$$
                                  hence $langle x,yrangle =|x||y|$.
                                  Then
                                  $$|ax+by|^2=a^2|x|^2+b^2|y|^2+2ablangle x,yrangle =a^2|x|^2+b^2|y|^2+2ab|x||y|=(a|x|+b|y|)^2,$$
                                  i.e.,
                                  $$ |ax+by|=a|x|+b|y|.$$
                                  In particular, with $a=frac t{|x|}$ and $b=frac{1-t}{|y|}$,
                                  $$ left|tfrac{x}{|x|}+(1-t)frac{y}{|y|}right|=1.$$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer

















                                  • 2




                                    Just an observation: If $langle x, y rangle = Vert x VertVert yVert$, then Cauchy-Schwarz implies that $x$ and $y$ are scalar multiples of eachother, and hence not linearly independent. Maybe such $x$ and $y$ cannot exist in an inner product space? Or the observation is faulty perhaps?
                                    – MisterRiemann
                                    Nov 17 at 22:38












                                  • In an inner product space $|x+y|=||x|+|y|$, $xneq 0$ implies $x=cy$ with $c >0$.
                                    – Kavi Rama Murthy
                                    Nov 17 at 23:55












                                  • It may be not an inner product space to begin with.
                                    – Nyfiken
                                    Nov 21 at 17:55













                                  up vote
                                  -1
                                  down vote










                                  up vote
                                  -1
                                  down vote









                                  From $|x+y|=|x|+|y|$,
                                  $$|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=|x+y|^2=|x|^2+|y|^2+2langle x,yrangle,$$
                                  hence $langle x,yrangle =|x||y|$.
                                  Then
                                  $$|ax+by|^2=a^2|x|^2+b^2|y|^2+2ablangle x,yrangle =a^2|x|^2+b^2|y|^2+2ab|x||y|=(a|x|+b|y|)^2,$$
                                  i.e.,
                                  $$ |ax+by|=a|x|+b|y|.$$
                                  In particular, with $a=frac t{|x|}$ and $b=frac{1-t}{|y|}$,
                                  $$ left|tfrac{x}{|x|}+(1-t)frac{y}{|y|}right|=1.$$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                  From $|x+y|=|x|+|y|$,
                                  $$|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=|x+y|^2=|x|^2+|y|^2+2langle x,yrangle,$$
                                  hence $langle x,yrangle =|x||y|$.
                                  Then
                                  $$|ax+by|^2=a^2|x|^2+b^2|y|^2+2ablangle x,yrangle =a^2|x|^2+b^2|y|^2+2ab|x||y|=(a|x|+b|y|)^2,$$
                                  i.e.,
                                  $$ |ax+by|=a|x|+b|y|.$$
                                  In particular, with $a=frac t{|x|}$ and $b=frac{1-t}{|y|}$,
                                  $$ left|tfrac{x}{|x|}+(1-t)frac{y}{|y|}right|=1.$$







                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                  share|cite|improve this answer










                                  answered Nov 17 at 21:43









                                  Hagen von Eitzen

                                  274k21266494




                                  274k21266494








                                  • 2




                                    Just an observation: If $langle x, y rangle = Vert x VertVert yVert$, then Cauchy-Schwarz implies that $x$ and $y$ are scalar multiples of eachother, and hence not linearly independent. Maybe such $x$ and $y$ cannot exist in an inner product space? Or the observation is faulty perhaps?
                                    – MisterRiemann
                                    Nov 17 at 22:38












                                  • In an inner product space $|x+y|=||x|+|y|$, $xneq 0$ implies $x=cy$ with $c >0$.
                                    – Kavi Rama Murthy
                                    Nov 17 at 23:55












                                  • It may be not an inner product space to begin with.
                                    – Nyfiken
                                    Nov 21 at 17:55














                                  • 2




                                    Just an observation: If $langle x, y rangle = Vert x VertVert yVert$, then Cauchy-Schwarz implies that $x$ and $y$ are scalar multiples of eachother, and hence not linearly independent. Maybe such $x$ and $y$ cannot exist in an inner product space? Or the observation is faulty perhaps?
                                    – MisterRiemann
                                    Nov 17 at 22:38












                                  • In an inner product space $|x+y|=||x|+|y|$, $xneq 0$ implies $x=cy$ with $c >0$.
                                    – Kavi Rama Murthy
                                    Nov 17 at 23:55












                                  • It may be not an inner product space to begin with.
                                    – Nyfiken
                                    Nov 21 at 17:55








                                  2




                                  2




                                  Just an observation: If $langle x, y rangle = Vert x VertVert yVert$, then Cauchy-Schwarz implies that $x$ and $y$ are scalar multiples of eachother, and hence not linearly independent. Maybe such $x$ and $y$ cannot exist in an inner product space? Or the observation is faulty perhaps?
                                  – MisterRiemann
                                  Nov 17 at 22:38






                                  Just an observation: If $langle x, y rangle = Vert x VertVert yVert$, then Cauchy-Schwarz implies that $x$ and $y$ are scalar multiples of eachother, and hence not linearly independent. Maybe such $x$ and $y$ cannot exist in an inner product space? Or the observation is faulty perhaps?
                                  – MisterRiemann
                                  Nov 17 at 22:38














                                  In an inner product space $|x+y|=||x|+|y|$, $xneq 0$ implies $x=cy$ with $c >0$.
                                  – Kavi Rama Murthy
                                  Nov 17 at 23:55






                                  In an inner product space $|x+y|=||x|+|y|$, $xneq 0$ implies $x=cy$ with $c >0$.
                                  – Kavi Rama Murthy
                                  Nov 17 at 23:55














                                  It may be not an inner product space to begin with.
                                  – Nyfiken
                                  Nov 21 at 17:55




                                  It may be not an inner product space to begin with.
                                  – Nyfiken
                                  Nov 21 at 17:55










                                  up vote
                                  -1
                                  down vote













                                  Let's say we have a closed, bounded, convex region $R$ in the plane. Suppose that




                                  • distinct points $O$, $A$, $B$, and $C$ lie in $R$,


                                  • $A$, $B$, and $C$ lie on the boundary and $O$ lies on the interior, and


                                  • $C$ lies on line segment $AB$.


                                  Then the whole of line segment $AB$ lies on the boundary $R$. For suppose to the contrary that some point $D$ on $AB$ does not: then ray $OD$ strikes the boundary of $R$ at some distinct point $E$, since $R$ is bounded, and all of segments $BE$ and $EA$ lie in $R$. Assume without loss of generality that $D$ is between $B$ and $C$. Then ray $OC$ strikes segment $EA$ at some point $F$ and $C$ lies between $O$ and $F$. But that's impossible, since that would put $C$ on the interior of $R$.



                                  To map back to the original problem: the plane in question is the span of $x$ and $y$, $O$ is the zero vector, $A$ is $x/lVert x rVert$, $B$ is $y/lVert y rVert$, $C$ is $(x+y)/lVert x + yrVert$, and $R$ is the restriction of the closed unit ball to the span of $x$ and $y$.



                                  Norm as Minkowski functional






                                  share|cite|improve this answer

























                                    up vote
                                    -1
                                    down vote













                                    Let's say we have a closed, bounded, convex region $R$ in the plane. Suppose that




                                    • distinct points $O$, $A$, $B$, and $C$ lie in $R$,


                                    • $A$, $B$, and $C$ lie on the boundary and $O$ lies on the interior, and


                                    • $C$ lies on line segment $AB$.


                                    Then the whole of line segment $AB$ lies on the boundary $R$. For suppose to the contrary that some point $D$ on $AB$ does not: then ray $OD$ strikes the boundary of $R$ at some distinct point $E$, since $R$ is bounded, and all of segments $BE$ and $EA$ lie in $R$. Assume without loss of generality that $D$ is between $B$ and $C$. Then ray $OC$ strikes segment $EA$ at some point $F$ and $C$ lies between $O$ and $F$. But that's impossible, since that would put $C$ on the interior of $R$.



                                    To map back to the original problem: the plane in question is the span of $x$ and $y$, $O$ is the zero vector, $A$ is $x/lVert x rVert$, $B$ is $y/lVert y rVert$, $C$ is $(x+y)/lVert x + yrVert$, and $R$ is the restriction of the closed unit ball to the span of $x$ and $y$.



                                    Norm as Minkowski functional






                                    share|cite|improve this answer























                                      up vote
                                      -1
                                      down vote










                                      up vote
                                      -1
                                      down vote









                                      Let's say we have a closed, bounded, convex region $R$ in the plane. Suppose that




                                      • distinct points $O$, $A$, $B$, and $C$ lie in $R$,


                                      • $A$, $B$, and $C$ lie on the boundary and $O$ lies on the interior, and


                                      • $C$ lies on line segment $AB$.


                                      Then the whole of line segment $AB$ lies on the boundary $R$. For suppose to the contrary that some point $D$ on $AB$ does not: then ray $OD$ strikes the boundary of $R$ at some distinct point $E$, since $R$ is bounded, and all of segments $BE$ and $EA$ lie in $R$. Assume without loss of generality that $D$ is between $B$ and $C$. Then ray $OC$ strikes segment $EA$ at some point $F$ and $C$ lies between $O$ and $F$. But that's impossible, since that would put $C$ on the interior of $R$.



                                      To map back to the original problem: the plane in question is the span of $x$ and $y$, $O$ is the zero vector, $A$ is $x/lVert x rVert$, $B$ is $y/lVert y rVert$, $C$ is $(x+y)/lVert x + yrVert$, and $R$ is the restriction of the closed unit ball to the span of $x$ and $y$.



                                      Norm as Minkowski functional






                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      Let's say we have a closed, bounded, convex region $R$ in the plane. Suppose that




                                      • distinct points $O$, $A$, $B$, and $C$ lie in $R$,


                                      • $A$, $B$, and $C$ lie on the boundary and $O$ lies on the interior, and


                                      • $C$ lies on line segment $AB$.


                                      Then the whole of line segment $AB$ lies on the boundary $R$. For suppose to the contrary that some point $D$ on $AB$ does not: then ray $OD$ strikes the boundary of $R$ at some distinct point $E$, since $R$ is bounded, and all of segments $BE$ and $EA$ lie in $R$. Assume without loss of generality that $D$ is between $B$ and $C$. Then ray $OC$ strikes segment $EA$ at some point $F$ and $C$ lies between $O$ and $F$. But that's impossible, since that would put $C$ on the interior of $R$.



                                      To map back to the original problem: the plane in question is the span of $x$ and $y$, $O$ is the zero vector, $A$ is $x/lVert x rVert$, $B$ is $y/lVert y rVert$, $C$ is $(x+y)/lVert x + yrVert$, and $R$ is the restriction of the closed unit ball to the span of $x$ and $y$.



                                      Norm as Minkowski functional







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Nov 18 at 0:17









                                      K B Dave

                                      3,177217




                                      3,177217






























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