Is this function of bounded variation?











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Consider Riemann's function defined on $mathbb{R}$,



$$ R(x) = sum_{n=1}^infty frac{sin n^2 x}{n^2} . $$



If you graph it, you can see that it shows a lot of zigzags.



Hence, the question is, is this function of bounded variation in $(0,2 pi )$?










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    up vote
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    Consider Riemann's function defined on $mathbb{R}$,



    $$ R(x) = sum_{n=1}^infty frac{sin n^2 x}{n^2} . $$



    If you graph it, you can see that it shows a lot of zigzags.



    Hence, the question is, is this function of bounded variation in $(0,2 pi )$?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2





      Consider Riemann's function defined on $mathbb{R}$,



      $$ R(x) = sum_{n=1}^infty frac{sin n^2 x}{n^2} . $$



      If you graph it, you can see that it shows a lot of zigzags.



      Hence, the question is, is this function of bounded variation in $(0,2 pi )$?










      share|cite|improve this question













      Consider Riemann's function defined on $mathbb{R}$,



      $$ R(x) = sum_{n=1}^infty frac{sin n^2 x}{n^2} . $$



      If you graph it, you can see that it shows a lot of zigzags.



      Hence, the question is, is this function of bounded variation in $(0,2 pi )$?







      real-analysis analysis fourier-analysis fourier-series






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      asked Nov 18 at 2:11









      pie

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          Remember that functions of bounded variation are differentiable almost everywhere. See here for example that your $R(x)$ is differentiable nowhere. Thus by contraposition, it is not of bounded variation.






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            I am just sharing my opinion. Please don't take it as an answer,



            Differentiate $R(x)$ and take absolute value we get,
            $$|R'(x)|lesum_{n=1}^infty |cos (n^2x)|$$



            Is the RHS is bounded above by some quantity? If not then it is not of Bounded Variation.



            Note: $|cos x|le 1,forall xinmathbb{R}$






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            • @Zachary Selk Thanks for pointing out.. I am working on it. Just guessing, will Fubini's theorem work here. If I was unable to figure it out I'll remove the answer.
              – Sujit Bhattacharyya
              Nov 18 at 3:43











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            2 Answers
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            active

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            active

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            active

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            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Remember that functions of bounded variation are differentiable almost everywhere. See here for example that your $R(x)$ is differentiable nowhere. Thus by contraposition, it is not of bounded variation.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              3
              down vote













              Remember that functions of bounded variation are differentiable almost everywhere. See here for example that your $R(x)$ is differentiable nowhere. Thus by contraposition, it is not of bounded variation.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                3
                down vote










                up vote
                3
                down vote









                Remember that functions of bounded variation are differentiable almost everywhere. See here for example that your $R(x)$ is differentiable nowhere. Thus by contraposition, it is not of bounded variation.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Remember that functions of bounded variation are differentiable almost everywhere. See here for example that your $R(x)$ is differentiable nowhere. Thus by contraposition, it is not of bounded variation.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 18 at 4:23









                Zachary Selk

                501211




                501211






















                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    I am just sharing my opinion. Please don't take it as an answer,



                    Differentiate $R(x)$ and take absolute value we get,
                    $$|R'(x)|lesum_{n=1}^infty |cos (n^2x)|$$



                    Is the RHS is bounded above by some quantity? If not then it is not of Bounded Variation.



                    Note: $|cos x|le 1,forall xinmathbb{R}$






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • @Zachary Selk Thanks for pointing out.. I am working on it. Just guessing, will Fubini's theorem work here. If I was unable to figure it out I'll remove the answer.
                      – Sujit Bhattacharyya
                      Nov 18 at 3:43















                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    I am just sharing my opinion. Please don't take it as an answer,



                    Differentiate $R(x)$ and take absolute value we get,
                    $$|R'(x)|lesum_{n=1}^infty |cos (n^2x)|$$



                    Is the RHS is bounded above by some quantity? If not then it is not of Bounded Variation.



                    Note: $|cos x|le 1,forall xinmathbb{R}$






                    share|cite|improve this answer





















                    • @Zachary Selk Thanks for pointing out.. I am working on it. Just guessing, will Fubini's theorem work here. If I was unable to figure it out I'll remove the answer.
                      – Sujit Bhattacharyya
                      Nov 18 at 3:43













                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote









                    I am just sharing my opinion. Please don't take it as an answer,



                    Differentiate $R(x)$ and take absolute value we get,
                    $$|R'(x)|lesum_{n=1}^infty |cos (n^2x)|$$



                    Is the RHS is bounded above by some quantity? If not then it is not of Bounded Variation.



                    Note: $|cos x|le 1,forall xinmathbb{R}$






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    I am just sharing my opinion. Please don't take it as an answer,



                    Differentiate $R(x)$ and take absolute value we get,
                    $$|R'(x)|lesum_{n=1}^infty |cos (n^2x)|$$



                    Is the RHS is bounded above by some quantity? If not then it is not of Bounded Variation.



                    Note: $|cos x|le 1,forall xinmathbb{R}$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 18 at 3:33









                    Sujit Bhattacharyya

                    905316




                    905316












                    • @Zachary Selk Thanks for pointing out.. I am working on it. Just guessing, will Fubini's theorem work here. If I was unable to figure it out I'll remove the answer.
                      – Sujit Bhattacharyya
                      Nov 18 at 3:43


















                    • @Zachary Selk Thanks for pointing out.. I am working on it. Just guessing, will Fubini's theorem work here. If I was unable to figure it out I'll remove the answer.
                      – Sujit Bhattacharyya
                      Nov 18 at 3:43
















                    @Zachary Selk Thanks for pointing out.. I am working on it. Just guessing, will Fubini's theorem work here. If I was unable to figure it out I'll remove the answer.
                    – Sujit Bhattacharyya
                    Nov 18 at 3:43




                    @Zachary Selk Thanks for pointing out.. I am working on it. Just guessing, will Fubini's theorem work here. If I was unable to figure it out I'll remove the answer.
                    – Sujit Bhattacharyya
                    Nov 18 at 3:43


















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