An example of a sequence in $mathbb{R}$ whose set of accumulation point is $mathbb{N}$











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I'm trying to find an example of a sequence in $mathbb{R}$ whose set of accumulation point is $mathbb{N}$, or whose set of accumulation point is $mathbb{R}$.
I would like to show my progress but I'm stuck.










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  • For the second one you can take $;Bbb Q;$ ...
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 18 at 11:22















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I'm trying to find an example of a sequence in $mathbb{R}$ whose set of accumulation point is $mathbb{N}$, or whose set of accumulation point is $mathbb{R}$.
I would like to show my progress but I'm stuck.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • For the second one you can take $;Bbb Q;$ ...
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 18 at 11:22













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0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I'm trying to find an example of a sequence in $mathbb{R}$ whose set of accumulation point is $mathbb{N}$, or whose set of accumulation point is $mathbb{R}$.
I would like to show my progress but I'm stuck.










share|cite|improve this question













I'm trying to find an example of a sequence in $mathbb{R}$ whose set of accumulation point is $mathbb{N}$, or whose set of accumulation point is $mathbb{R}$.
I would like to show my progress but I'm stuck.







real-analysis






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asked Nov 18 at 11:20









user15269

1608




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  • For the second one you can take $;Bbb Q;$ ...
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 18 at 11:22


















  • For the second one you can take $;Bbb Q;$ ...
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 18 at 11:22
















For the second one you can take $;Bbb Q;$ ...
– DonAntonio
Nov 18 at 11:22




For the second one you can take $;Bbb Q;$ ...
– DonAntonio
Nov 18 at 11:22










1 Answer
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For $mathbb{R}$: take a bijection $f:mathbb{N}tomathbb{Q}$. Take the sequence whose $n$th term is $f(n)$. This works because we obtain every rational number, and every real number has a sequence of distinct rational numbers converging to it.



For $mathbb{N}$: Take a bijection $g: mathbb{N}tomathbb{N^2}$. Take the sequence whose $n$th term is the first coordinate of $g(n)$. This works because we obtain every natural number infinitely many times.






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  • An explicit example: 1, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …
    – Patrick Stevens
    Nov 18 at 11:26











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1 Answer
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active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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oldest

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active

oldest

votes








up vote
0
down vote













For $mathbb{R}$: take a bijection $f:mathbb{N}tomathbb{Q}$. Take the sequence whose $n$th term is $f(n)$. This works because we obtain every rational number, and every real number has a sequence of distinct rational numbers converging to it.



For $mathbb{N}$: Take a bijection $g: mathbb{N}tomathbb{N^2}$. Take the sequence whose $n$th term is the first coordinate of $g(n)$. This works because we obtain every natural number infinitely many times.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • An explicit example: 1, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …
    – Patrick Stevens
    Nov 18 at 11:26















up vote
0
down vote













For $mathbb{R}$: take a bijection $f:mathbb{N}tomathbb{Q}$. Take the sequence whose $n$th term is $f(n)$. This works because we obtain every rational number, and every real number has a sequence of distinct rational numbers converging to it.



For $mathbb{N}$: Take a bijection $g: mathbb{N}tomathbb{N^2}$. Take the sequence whose $n$th term is the first coordinate of $g(n)$. This works because we obtain every natural number infinitely many times.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • An explicit example: 1, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …
    – Patrick Stevens
    Nov 18 at 11:26













up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









For $mathbb{R}$: take a bijection $f:mathbb{N}tomathbb{Q}$. Take the sequence whose $n$th term is $f(n)$. This works because we obtain every rational number, and every real number has a sequence of distinct rational numbers converging to it.



For $mathbb{N}$: Take a bijection $g: mathbb{N}tomathbb{N^2}$. Take the sequence whose $n$th term is the first coordinate of $g(n)$. This works because we obtain every natural number infinitely many times.






share|cite|improve this answer












For $mathbb{R}$: take a bijection $f:mathbb{N}tomathbb{Q}$. Take the sequence whose $n$th term is $f(n)$. This works because we obtain every rational number, and every real number has a sequence of distinct rational numbers converging to it.



For $mathbb{N}$: Take a bijection $g: mathbb{N}tomathbb{N^2}$. Take the sequence whose $n$th term is the first coordinate of $g(n)$. This works because we obtain every natural number infinitely many times.







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answered Nov 18 at 11:24









user3482749

1,916411




1,916411












  • An explicit example: 1, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …
    – Patrick Stevens
    Nov 18 at 11:26


















  • An explicit example: 1, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …
    – Patrick Stevens
    Nov 18 at 11:26
















An explicit example: 1, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …
– Patrick Stevens
Nov 18 at 11:26




An explicit example: 1, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …
– Patrick Stevens
Nov 18 at 11:26


















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