functional calculus under the $*$ homomorphism
If $A,B$ are two $C^*$ algebras,$psi:A rightarrow B$ is a non $*$ homomorphism.Suppose $b$ is a nonzero normal element in $B$,we have a $*$ isometric isomorphism $phi:C(sigma_B(b))to C^*(b,b^*),; fmapsto f(b)$
My question is:does there exist a $fin C(sigma_B(b)),ain A$ such that $psi(a) =f(b)$ is nonzero?
operator-theory operator-algebras c-star-algebras von-neumann-algebras
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If $A,B$ are two $C^*$ algebras,$psi:A rightarrow B$ is a non $*$ homomorphism.Suppose $b$ is a nonzero normal element in $B$,we have a $*$ isometric isomorphism $phi:C(sigma_B(b))to C^*(b,b^*),; fmapsto f(b)$
My question is:does there exist a $fin C(sigma_B(b)),ain A$ such that $psi(a) =f(b)$ is nonzero?
operator-theory operator-algebras c-star-algebras von-neumann-algebras
This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
– André S.
Nov 18 '18 at 21:42
I have reedited the question
– mathrookie
Nov 19 '18 at 3:45
add a comment |
If $A,B$ are two $C^*$ algebras,$psi:A rightarrow B$ is a non $*$ homomorphism.Suppose $b$ is a nonzero normal element in $B$,we have a $*$ isometric isomorphism $phi:C(sigma_B(b))to C^*(b,b^*),; fmapsto f(b)$
My question is:does there exist a $fin C(sigma_B(b)),ain A$ such that $psi(a) =f(b)$ is nonzero?
operator-theory operator-algebras c-star-algebras von-neumann-algebras
If $A,B$ are two $C^*$ algebras,$psi:A rightarrow B$ is a non $*$ homomorphism.Suppose $b$ is a nonzero normal element in $B$,we have a $*$ isometric isomorphism $phi:C(sigma_B(b))to C^*(b,b^*),; fmapsto f(b)$
My question is:does there exist a $fin C(sigma_B(b)),ain A$ such that $psi(a) =f(b)$ is nonzero?
operator-theory operator-algebras c-star-algebras von-neumann-algebras
operator-theory operator-algebras c-star-algebras von-neumann-algebras
edited Nov 19 '18 at 3:45
asked Nov 18 '18 at 20:13
mathrookie
809512
809512
This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
– André S.
Nov 18 '18 at 21:42
I have reedited the question
– mathrookie
Nov 19 '18 at 3:45
add a comment |
This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
– André S.
Nov 18 '18 at 21:42
I have reedited the question
– mathrookie
Nov 19 '18 at 3:45
This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
– André S.
Nov 18 '18 at 21:42
This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
– André S.
Nov 18 '18 at 21:42
I have reedited the question
– mathrookie
Nov 19 '18 at 3:45
I have reedited the question
– mathrookie
Nov 19 '18 at 3:45
add a comment |
1 Answer
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This can fail even if $psi$ is a $*$-homomorphism. Take $A=B=mathbb Coplusmathbb C$, and
$$
psi(x,y)=(x,0), b=(0,1).
$$
Then $psi(A)=mathbb Coplus 0$, while $C^*(b)=0oplusmathbb C$; so your equality can only occur when $psi(a)=0=f(b)$.
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
This can fail even if $psi$ is a $*$-homomorphism. Take $A=B=mathbb Coplusmathbb C$, and
$$
psi(x,y)=(x,0), b=(0,1).
$$
Then $psi(A)=mathbb Coplus 0$, while $C^*(b)=0oplusmathbb C$; so your equality can only occur when $psi(a)=0=f(b)$.
add a comment |
This can fail even if $psi$ is a $*$-homomorphism. Take $A=B=mathbb Coplusmathbb C$, and
$$
psi(x,y)=(x,0), b=(0,1).
$$
Then $psi(A)=mathbb Coplus 0$, while $C^*(b)=0oplusmathbb C$; so your equality can only occur when $psi(a)=0=f(b)$.
add a comment |
This can fail even if $psi$ is a $*$-homomorphism. Take $A=B=mathbb Coplusmathbb C$, and
$$
psi(x,y)=(x,0), b=(0,1).
$$
Then $psi(A)=mathbb Coplus 0$, while $C^*(b)=0oplusmathbb C$; so your equality can only occur when $psi(a)=0=f(b)$.
This can fail even if $psi$ is a $*$-homomorphism. Take $A=B=mathbb Coplusmathbb C$, and
$$
psi(x,y)=(x,0), b=(0,1).
$$
Then $psi(A)=mathbb Coplus 0$, while $C^*(b)=0oplusmathbb C$; so your equality can only occur when $psi(a)=0=f(b)$.
answered Nov 19 '18 at 4:25
Martin Argerami
124k1176174
124k1176174
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This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
– André S.
Nov 18 '18 at 21:42
I have reedited the question
– mathrookie
Nov 19 '18 at 3:45