functional calculus under the $*$ homomorphism












-1














If $A,B$ are two $C^*$ algebras,$psi:A rightarrow B$ is a non $*$ homomorphism.Suppose $b$ is a nonzero normal element in $B$,we have a $*$ isometric isomorphism $phi:C(sigma_B(b))to C^*(b,b^*),; fmapsto f(b)$



My question is:does there exist a $fin C(sigma_B(b)),ain A$ such that $psi(a) =f(b)$ is nonzero?










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  • This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
    – André S.
    Nov 18 '18 at 21:42












  • I have reedited the question
    – mathrookie
    Nov 19 '18 at 3:45
















-1














If $A,B$ are two $C^*$ algebras,$psi:A rightarrow B$ is a non $*$ homomorphism.Suppose $b$ is a nonzero normal element in $B$,we have a $*$ isometric isomorphism $phi:C(sigma_B(b))to C^*(b,b^*),; fmapsto f(b)$



My question is:does there exist a $fin C(sigma_B(b)),ain A$ such that $psi(a) =f(b)$ is nonzero?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
    – André S.
    Nov 18 '18 at 21:42












  • I have reedited the question
    – mathrookie
    Nov 19 '18 at 3:45














-1












-1








-1







If $A,B$ are two $C^*$ algebras,$psi:A rightarrow B$ is a non $*$ homomorphism.Suppose $b$ is a nonzero normal element in $B$,we have a $*$ isometric isomorphism $phi:C(sigma_B(b))to C^*(b,b^*),; fmapsto f(b)$



My question is:does there exist a $fin C(sigma_B(b)),ain A$ such that $psi(a) =f(b)$ is nonzero?










share|cite|improve this question















If $A,B$ are two $C^*$ algebras,$psi:A rightarrow B$ is a non $*$ homomorphism.Suppose $b$ is a nonzero normal element in $B$,we have a $*$ isometric isomorphism $phi:C(sigma_B(b))to C^*(b,b^*),; fmapsto f(b)$



My question is:does there exist a $fin C(sigma_B(b)),ain A$ such that $psi(a) =f(b)$ is nonzero?







operator-theory operator-algebras c-star-algebras von-neumann-algebras






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edited Nov 19 '18 at 3:45

























asked Nov 18 '18 at 20:13









mathrookie

809512




809512












  • This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
    – André S.
    Nov 18 '18 at 21:42












  • I have reedited the question
    – mathrookie
    Nov 19 '18 at 3:45


















  • This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
    – André S.
    Nov 18 '18 at 21:42












  • I have reedited the question
    – mathrookie
    Nov 19 '18 at 3:45
















This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
– André S.
Nov 18 '18 at 21:42






This is surely the case, if you assume that $f(a) in A$, which you suggest by your notation. Probably you want to know something else.
– André S.
Nov 18 '18 at 21:42














I have reedited the question
– mathrookie
Nov 19 '18 at 3:45




I have reedited the question
– mathrookie
Nov 19 '18 at 3:45










1 Answer
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This can fail even if $psi$ is a $*$-homomorphism. Take $A=B=mathbb Coplusmathbb C$, and
$$
psi(x,y)=(x,0), b=(0,1).
$$

Then $psi(A)=mathbb Coplus 0$, while $C^*(b)=0oplusmathbb C$; so your equality can only occur when $psi(a)=0=f(b)$.






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    This can fail even if $psi$ is a $*$-homomorphism. Take $A=B=mathbb Coplusmathbb C$, and
    $$
    psi(x,y)=(x,0), b=(0,1).
    $$

    Then $psi(A)=mathbb Coplus 0$, while $C^*(b)=0oplusmathbb C$; so your equality can only occur when $psi(a)=0=f(b)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      1














      This can fail even if $psi$ is a $*$-homomorphism. Take $A=B=mathbb Coplusmathbb C$, and
      $$
      psi(x,y)=(x,0), b=(0,1).
      $$

      Then $psi(A)=mathbb Coplus 0$, while $C^*(b)=0oplusmathbb C$; so your equality can only occur when $psi(a)=0=f(b)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        1












        1








        1






        This can fail even if $psi$ is a $*$-homomorphism. Take $A=B=mathbb Coplusmathbb C$, and
        $$
        psi(x,y)=(x,0), b=(0,1).
        $$

        Then $psi(A)=mathbb Coplus 0$, while $C^*(b)=0oplusmathbb C$; so your equality can only occur when $psi(a)=0=f(b)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        This can fail even if $psi$ is a $*$-homomorphism. Take $A=B=mathbb Coplusmathbb C$, and
        $$
        psi(x,y)=(x,0), b=(0,1).
        $$

        Then $psi(A)=mathbb Coplus 0$, while $C^*(b)=0oplusmathbb C$; so your equality can only occur when $psi(a)=0=f(b)$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 19 '18 at 4:25









        Martin Argerami

        124k1176174




        124k1176174






























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