Finite measure space suspected property
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Prove or disprove
In a measure space,
if $mu(X)<infty $ and $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}mu (A_n)=0$ then $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$
I have some examples supporting this but could not prove or give any counter examples.
I already know about the theorem that $sum_n mu (A_n)<infty$ implies $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$, but it did not help me.
measure-theory
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Prove or disprove
In a measure space,
if $mu(X)<infty $ and $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}mu (A_n)=0$ then $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$
I have some examples supporting this but could not prove or give any counter examples.
I already know about the theorem that $sum_n mu (A_n)<infty$ implies $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$, but it did not help me.
measure-theory
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Prove or disprove
In a measure space,
if $mu(X)<infty $ and $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}mu (A_n)=0$ then $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$
I have some examples supporting this but could not prove or give any counter examples.
I already know about the theorem that $sum_n mu (A_n)<infty$ implies $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$, but it did not help me.
measure-theory
Prove or disprove
In a measure space,
if $mu(X)<infty $ and $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}mu (A_n)=0$ then $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$
I have some examples supporting this but could not prove or give any counter examples.
I already know about the theorem that $sum_n mu (A_n)<infty$ implies $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$, but it did not help me.
measure-theory
measure-theory
asked Nov 17 at 12:35
Utku Okur
8614
8614
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1 Answer
1
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up vote
2
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accepted
Let $X=[0,1]$ be equipped with Lebesgue measure.
For $A_1,A_2,cdots$ take sequence:$[0,1],[0,frac12],[frac12,0],[0,frac13],[frac13,frac23],[frac23,1],[0,frac14],dots$
Then $lambda(A_n)to0$ but $bigcap_{n=1}^{infty}bigcup_{k=n}^{infty}A_n=[0,1]$ (i.e. for every $xin[0,1]$ we have $xin A_n$ infinitely often) so has measure $1$.
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $X=[0,1]$ be equipped with Lebesgue measure.
For $A_1,A_2,cdots$ take sequence:$[0,1],[0,frac12],[frac12,0],[0,frac13],[frac13,frac23],[frac23,1],[0,frac14],dots$
Then $lambda(A_n)to0$ but $bigcap_{n=1}^{infty}bigcup_{k=n}^{infty}A_n=[0,1]$ (i.e. for every $xin[0,1]$ we have $xin A_n$ infinitely often) so has measure $1$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $X=[0,1]$ be equipped with Lebesgue measure.
For $A_1,A_2,cdots$ take sequence:$[0,1],[0,frac12],[frac12,0],[0,frac13],[frac13,frac23],[frac23,1],[0,frac14],dots$
Then $lambda(A_n)to0$ but $bigcap_{n=1}^{infty}bigcup_{k=n}^{infty}A_n=[0,1]$ (i.e. for every $xin[0,1]$ we have $xin A_n$ infinitely often) so has measure $1$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $X=[0,1]$ be equipped with Lebesgue measure.
For $A_1,A_2,cdots$ take sequence:$[0,1],[0,frac12],[frac12,0],[0,frac13],[frac13,frac23],[frac23,1],[0,frac14],dots$
Then $lambda(A_n)to0$ but $bigcap_{n=1}^{infty}bigcup_{k=n}^{infty}A_n=[0,1]$ (i.e. for every $xin[0,1]$ we have $xin A_n$ infinitely often) so has measure $1$.
Let $X=[0,1]$ be equipped with Lebesgue measure.
For $A_1,A_2,cdots$ take sequence:$[0,1],[0,frac12],[frac12,0],[0,frac13],[frac13,frac23],[frac23,1],[0,frac14],dots$
Then $lambda(A_n)to0$ but $bigcap_{n=1}^{infty}bigcup_{k=n}^{infty}A_n=[0,1]$ (i.e. for every $xin[0,1]$ we have $xin A_n$ infinitely often) so has measure $1$.
answered Nov 17 at 12:44
drhab
94.9k543125
94.9k543125
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