Finite measure space suspected property











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Prove or disprove



In a measure space,
if $mu(X)<infty $ and $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}mu (A_n)=0$ then $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$



I have some examples supporting this but could not prove or give any counter examples.



I already know about the theorem that $sum_n mu (A_n)<infty$ implies $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$, but it did not help me.










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Prove or disprove



    In a measure space,
    if $mu(X)<infty $ and $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}mu (A_n)=0$ then $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$



    I have some examples supporting this but could not prove or give any counter examples.



    I already know about the theorem that $sum_n mu (A_n)<infty$ implies $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$, but it did not help me.










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Prove or disprove



      In a measure space,
      if $mu(X)<infty $ and $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}mu (A_n)=0$ then $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$



      I have some examples supporting this but could not prove or give any counter examples.



      I already know about the theorem that $sum_n mu (A_n)<infty$ implies $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$, but it did not help me.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Prove or disprove



      In a measure space,
      if $mu(X)<infty $ and $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}mu (A_n)=0$ then $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$



      I have some examples supporting this but could not prove or give any counter examples.



      I already know about the theorem that $sum_n mu (A_n)<infty$ implies $mu (bigcap_n bigcup_{kgeq n} A_k)=0$, but it did not help me.







      measure-theory






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      asked Nov 17 at 12:35









      Utku Okur

      8614




      8614






















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          Let $X=[0,1]$ be equipped with Lebesgue measure.



          For $A_1,A_2,cdots$ take sequence:$[0,1],[0,frac12],[frac12,0],[0,frac13],[frac13,frac23],[frac23,1],[0,frac14],dots$



          Then $lambda(A_n)to0$ but $bigcap_{n=1}^{infty}bigcup_{k=n}^{infty}A_n=[0,1]$ (i.e. for every $xin[0,1]$ we have $xin A_n$ infinitely often) so has measure $1$.






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            1 Answer
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            active

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            active

            oldest

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            active

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            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Let $X=[0,1]$ be equipped with Lebesgue measure.



            For $A_1,A_2,cdots$ take sequence:$[0,1],[0,frac12],[frac12,0],[0,frac13],[frac13,frac23],[frac23,1],[0,frac14],dots$



            Then $lambda(A_n)to0$ but $bigcap_{n=1}^{infty}bigcup_{k=n}^{infty}A_n=[0,1]$ (i.e. for every $xin[0,1]$ we have $xin A_n$ infinitely often) so has measure $1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              Let $X=[0,1]$ be equipped with Lebesgue measure.



              For $A_1,A_2,cdots$ take sequence:$[0,1],[0,frac12],[frac12,0],[0,frac13],[frac13,frac23],[frac23,1],[0,frac14],dots$



              Then $lambda(A_n)to0$ but $bigcap_{n=1}^{infty}bigcup_{k=n}^{infty}A_n=[0,1]$ (i.e. for every $xin[0,1]$ we have $xin A_n$ infinitely often) so has measure $1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted






                Let $X=[0,1]$ be equipped with Lebesgue measure.



                For $A_1,A_2,cdots$ take sequence:$[0,1],[0,frac12],[frac12,0],[0,frac13],[frac13,frac23],[frac23,1],[0,frac14],dots$



                Then $lambda(A_n)to0$ but $bigcap_{n=1}^{infty}bigcup_{k=n}^{infty}A_n=[0,1]$ (i.e. for every $xin[0,1]$ we have $xin A_n$ infinitely often) so has measure $1$.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Let $X=[0,1]$ be equipped with Lebesgue measure.



                For $A_1,A_2,cdots$ take sequence:$[0,1],[0,frac12],[frac12,0],[0,frac13],[frac13,frac23],[frac23,1],[0,frac14],dots$



                Then $lambda(A_n)to0$ but $bigcap_{n=1}^{infty}bigcup_{k=n}^{infty}A_n=[0,1]$ (i.e. for every $xin[0,1]$ we have $xin A_n$ infinitely often) so has measure $1$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 17 at 12:44









                drhab

                94.9k543125




                94.9k543125






























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