$F(xy) = F(x)+F(y)$ Proof











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Suppose $F$ is differentiable $forall x>0$ and $F(xy) = F(x)+F(y)$, $ forall x,y>0$.
Prove that if $F$ is not the zero function, then $exists$ $ a>0$ such that: $F(x)=log_a(x)$, $forall x>0$.
I seem to be doing fine except on getting the base $a$ for the log. So far I have that $F'(x)=frac{F'(1)}{x}$. I know from calculus that $intfrac{1}{t}dt=ln(t)$. How can I get the base to be $F'(1)$ instead of $e$?










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    Hint: $frac{ln(x)}{ln(a)} = log_a(x)$
    – Chris Janjigian
    Dec 8 '13 at 17:40






  • 1




    See math.stackexchange.com/a/2091337/72031 for a more detailed analysis with minimal assumptions.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Jan 17 '17 at 6:07










  • You might find some info on this functional equation also here: Overview of basic facts about Cauchy functional equation
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 17 '17 at 6:36















up vote
8
down vote

favorite
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Suppose $F$ is differentiable $forall x>0$ and $F(xy) = F(x)+F(y)$, $ forall x,y>0$.
Prove that if $F$ is not the zero function, then $exists$ $ a>0$ such that: $F(x)=log_a(x)$, $forall x>0$.
I seem to be doing fine except on getting the base $a$ for the log. So far I have that $F'(x)=frac{F'(1)}{x}$. I know from calculus that $intfrac{1}{t}dt=ln(t)$. How can I get the base to be $F'(1)$ instead of $e$?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Hint: $frac{ln(x)}{ln(a)} = log_a(x)$
    – Chris Janjigian
    Dec 8 '13 at 17:40






  • 1




    See math.stackexchange.com/a/2091337/72031 for a more detailed analysis with minimal assumptions.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Jan 17 '17 at 6:07










  • You might find some info on this functional equation also here: Overview of basic facts about Cauchy functional equation
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 17 '17 at 6:36













up vote
8
down vote

favorite
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up vote
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Suppose $F$ is differentiable $forall x>0$ and $F(xy) = F(x)+F(y)$, $ forall x,y>0$.
Prove that if $F$ is not the zero function, then $exists$ $ a>0$ such that: $F(x)=log_a(x)$, $forall x>0$.
I seem to be doing fine except on getting the base $a$ for the log. So far I have that $F'(x)=frac{F'(1)}{x}$. I know from calculus that $intfrac{1}{t}dt=ln(t)$. How can I get the base to be $F'(1)$ instead of $e$?










share|cite|improve this question















Suppose $F$ is differentiable $forall x>0$ and $F(xy) = F(x)+F(y)$, $ forall x,y>0$.
Prove that if $F$ is not the zero function, then $exists$ $ a>0$ such that: $F(x)=log_a(x)$, $forall x>0$.
I seem to be doing fine except on getting the base $a$ for the log. So far I have that $F'(x)=frac{F'(1)}{x}$. I know from calculus that $intfrac{1}{t}dt=ln(t)$. How can I get the base to be $F'(1)$ instead of $e$?







real-analysis derivatives functional-equations






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edited Nov 17 at 6:54









dmtri

1,2261521




1,2261521










asked Dec 8 '13 at 17:36









user114369

4112




4112








  • 1




    Hint: $frac{ln(x)}{ln(a)} = log_a(x)$
    – Chris Janjigian
    Dec 8 '13 at 17:40






  • 1




    See math.stackexchange.com/a/2091337/72031 for a more detailed analysis with minimal assumptions.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Jan 17 '17 at 6:07










  • You might find some info on this functional equation also here: Overview of basic facts about Cauchy functional equation
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 17 '17 at 6:36














  • 1




    Hint: $frac{ln(x)}{ln(a)} = log_a(x)$
    – Chris Janjigian
    Dec 8 '13 at 17:40






  • 1




    See math.stackexchange.com/a/2091337/72031 for a more detailed analysis with minimal assumptions.
    – Paramanand Singh
    Jan 17 '17 at 6:07










  • You might find some info on this functional equation also here: Overview of basic facts about Cauchy functional equation
    – Martin Sleziak
    Jan 17 '17 at 6:36








1




1




Hint: $frac{ln(x)}{ln(a)} = log_a(x)$
– Chris Janjigian
Dec 8 '13 at 17:40




Hint: $frac{ln(x)}{ln(a)} = log_a(x)$
– Chris Janjigian
Dec 8 '13 at 17:40




1




1




See math.stackexchange.com/a/2091337/72031 for a more detailed analysis with minimal assumptions.
– Paramanand Singh
Jan 17 '17 at 6:07




See math.stackexchange.com/a/2091337/72031 for a more detailed analysis with minimal assumptions.
– Paramanand Singh
Jan 17 '17 at 6:07












You might find some info on this functional equation also here: Overview of basic facts about Cauchy functional equation
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 17 '17 at 6:36




You might find some info on this functional equation also here: Overview of basic facts about Cauchy functional equation
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 17 '17 at 6:36










3 Answers
3






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2
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Since $F(xy)=F(x)+F(y)implies F(1)=0$ we have $F(x)=F(x)-F(1)=int_1^x (F'(1)/t)dt=F'(1)ln x =log_A(x)$ where $$A=exp {(1/F'(1))}.$$ Because for $x>1$ we have $$exp(ln x)=x=A^{log_A(x)}=[exp (ln A)]^{log_A(x)}=$$ $$=exp (;(ln A)(log_A(x);).$$ So $log_A(x)=(ln x)cdot (1/ln A).$



In this case we have $1/ln A=F'(1),$ that is, $ln A=1/F'(1).$



For example if $F'(1)=10$ the base $A$ is $e^{1/10}.$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • You still have to prove that under the given conditions $F'(1)ne 0$, so $A$ is always well defined. It's of course trivial to do given the results user114369 already got, but is has to be done.
    – celtschk
    Jan 17 '17 at 6:49












  • That integral diverges, check the bounds.
    – YoTengoUnLCD
    Jan 17 '17 at 8:11










  • @YoTengoUnLCD. That was a typo. Thanks.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jan 18 '17 at 3:10


















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0
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$$a^x=left(e^{text{log}(a)}right)^x = e^{text{log}(a)x}$$
$$text{log}(a^x)=xtext{log}(a)$$
$$text{log}_a(a^x)=x$$



Extrapolating from here, we have



$$text{log}_a(x) = frac {text{log}(x)}{text{log}(a)}$$



It shouldn't be too hard to get your answer from this.






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    You can conclude that$$F(x)=F'(1)ln x+C$$where $C=0$ since $F(1)=0$ ( let $x=y=1$ ) therefore $$F(x)=F'(1)ln x={log_e xover log_e e^{F'(1)}}=log_{e^{F'(x)}}x$$hence you can write $$a=e^{F'(1)}$$ where $F'(1)$ is arbitrarily any real number.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

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      3 Answers
      3






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      active

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      up vote
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      down vote













      Since $F(xy)=F(x)+F(y)implies F(1)=0$ we have $F(x)=F(x)-F(1)=int_1^x (F'(1)/t)dt=F'(1)ln x =log_A(x)$ where $$A=exp {(1/F'(1))}.$$ Because for $x>1$ we have $$exp(ln x)=x=A^{log_A(x)}=[exp (ln A)]^{log_A(x)}=$$ $$=exp (;(ln A)(log_A(x);).$$ So $log_A(x)=(ln x)cdot (1/ln A).$



      In this case we have $1/ln A=F'(1),$ that is, $ln A=1/F'(1).$



      For example if $F'(1)=10$ the base $A$ is $e^{1/10}.$






      share|cite|improve this answer























      • You still have to prove that under the given conditions $F'(1)ne 0$, so $A$ is always well defined. It's of course trivial to do given the results user114369 already got, but is has to be done.
        – celtschk
        Jan 17 '17 at 6:49












      • That integral diverges, check the bounds.
        – YoTengoUnLCD
        Jan 17 '17 at 8:11










      • @YoTengoUnLCD. That was a typo. Thanks.
        – DanielWainfleet
        Jan 18 '17 at 3:10















      up vote
      2
      down vote













      Since $F(xy)=F(x)+F(y)implies F(1)=0$ we have $F(x)=F(x)-F(1)=int_1^x (F'(1)/t)dt=F'(1)ln x =log_A(x)$ where $$A=exp {(1/F'(1))}.$$ Because for $x>1$ we have $$exp(ln x)=x=A^{log_A(x)}=[exp (ln A)]^{log_A(x)}=$$ $$=exp (;(ln A)(log_A(x);).$$ So $log_A(x)=(ln x)cdot (1/ln A).$



      In this case we have $1/ln A=F'(1),$ that is, $ln A=1/F'(1).$



      For example if $F'(1)=10$ the base $A$ is $e^{1/10}.$






      share|cite|improve this answer























      • You still have to prove that under the given conditions $F'(1)ne 0$, so $A$ is always well defined. It's of course trivial to do given the results user114369 already got, but is has to be done.
        – celtschk
        Jan 17 '17 at 6:49












      • That integral diverges, check the bounds.
        – YoTengoUnLCD
        Jan 17 '17 at 8:11










      • @YoTengoUnLCD. That was a typo. Thanks.
        – DanielWainfleet
        Jan 18 '17 at 3:10













      up vote
      2
      down vote










      up vote
      2
      down vote









      Since $F(xy)=F(x)+F(y)implies F(1)=0$ we have $F(x)=F(x)-F(1)=int_1^x (F'(1)/t)dt=F'(1)ln x =log_A(x)$ where $$A=exp {(1/F'(1))}.$$ Because for $x>1$ we have $$exp(ln x)=x=A^{log_A(x)}=[exp (ln A)]^{log_A(x)}=$$ $$=exp (;(ln A)(log_A(x);).$$ So $log_A(x)=(ln x)cdot (1/ln A).$



      In this case we have $1/ln A=F'(1),$ that is, $ln A=1/F'(1).$



      For example if $F'(1)=10$ the base $A$ is $e^{1/10}.$






      share|cite|improve this answer














      Since $F(xy)=F(x)+F(y)implies F(1)=0$ we have $F(x)=F(x)-F(1)=int_1^x (F'(1)/t)dt=F'(1)ln x =log_A(x)$ where $$A=exp {(1/F'(1))}.$$ Because for $x>1$ we have $$exp(ln x)=x=A^{log_A(x)}=[exp (ln A)]^{log_A(x)}=$$ $$=exp (;(ln A)(log_A(x);).$$ So $log_A(x)=(ln x)cdot (1/ln A).$



      In this case we have $1/ln A=F'(1),$ that is, $ln A=1/F'(1).$



      For example if $F'(1)=10$ the base $A$ is $e^{1/10}.$







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Nov 17 at 6:41

























      answered Dec 13 '16 at 6:14









      DanielWainfleet

      33.5k31647




      33.5k31647












      • You still have to prove that under the given conditions $F'(1)ne 0$, so $A$ is always well defined. It's of course trivial to do given the results user114369 already got, but is has to be done.
        – celtschk
        Jan 17 '17 at 6:49












      • That integral diverges, check the bounds.
        – YoTengoUnLCD
        Jan 17 '17 at 8:11










      • @YoTengoUnLCD. That was a typo. Thanks.
        – DanielWainfleet
        Jan 18 '17 at 3:10


















      • You still have to prove that under the given conditions $F'(1)ne 0$, so $A$ is always well defined. It's of course trivial to do given the results user114369 already got, but is has to be done.
        – celtschk
        Jan 17 '17 at 6:49












      • That integral diverges, check the bounds.
        – YoTengoUnLCD
        Jan 17 '17 at 8:11










      • @YoTengoUnLCD. That was a typo. Thanks.
        – DanielWainfleet
        Jan 18 '17 at 3:10
















      You still have to prove that under the given conditions $F'(1)ne 0$, so $A$ is always well defined. It's of course trivial to do given the results user114369 already got, but is has to be done.
      – celtschk
      Jan 17 '17 at 6:49






      You still have to prove that under the given conditions $F'(1)ne 0$, so $A$ is always well defined. It's of course trivial to do given the results user114369 already got, but is has to be done.
      – celtschk
      Jan 17 '17 at 6:49














      That integral diverges, check the bounds.
      – YoTengoUnLCD
      Jan 17 '17 at 8:11




      That integral diverges, check the bounds.
      – YoTengoUnLCD
      Jan 17 '17 at 8:11












      @YoTengoUnLCD. That was a typo. Thanks.
      – DanielWainfleet
      Jan 18 '17 at 3:10




      @YoTengoUnLCD. That was a typo. Thanks.
      – DanielWainfleet
      Jan 18 '17 at 3:10










      up vote
      0
      down vote













      $$a^x=left(e^{text{log}(a)}right)^x = e^{text{log}(a)x}$$
      $$text{log}(a^x)=xtext{log}(a)$$
      $$text{log}_a(a^x)=x$$



      Extrapolating from here, we have



      $$text{log}_a(x) = frac {text{log}(x)}{text{log}(a)}$$



      It shouldn't be too hard to get your answer from this.






      share|cite|improve this answer



























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        $$a^x=left(e^{text{log}(a)}right)^x = e^{text{log}(a)x}$$
        $$text{log}(a^x)=xtext{log}(a)$$
        $$text{log}_a(a^x)=x$$



        Extrapolating from here, we have



        $$text{log}_a(x) = frac {text{log}(x)}{text{log}(a)}$$



        It shouldn't be too hard to get your answer from this.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          $$a^x=left(e^{text{log}(a)}right)^x = e^{text{log}(a)x}$$
          $$text{log}(a^x)=xtext{log}(a)$$
          $$text{log}_a(a^x)=x$$



          Extrapolating from here, we have



          $$text{log}_a(x) = frac {text{log}(x)}{text{log}(a)}$$



          It shouldn't be too hard to get your answer from this.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          $$a^x=left(e^{text{log}(a)}right)^x = e^{text{log}(a)x}$$
          $$text{log}(a^x)=xtext{log}(a)$$
          $$text{log}_a(a^x)=x$$



          Extrapolating from here, we have



          $$text{log}_a(x) = frac {text{log}(x)}{text{log}(a)}$$



          It shouldn't be too hard to get your answer from this.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 18 '17 at 3:37









          Drew Christensen

          406210




          406210










          answered Dec 8 '13 at 17:47









          Mike Miller

          35.1k467132




          35.1k467132






















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              You can conclude that$$F(x)=F'(1)ln x+C$$where $C=0$ since $F(1)=0$ ( let $x=y=1$ ) therefore $$F(x)=F'(1)ln x={log_e xover log_e e^{F'(1)}}=log_{e^{F'(x)}}x$$hence you can write $$a=e^{F'(1)}$$ where $F'(1)$ is arbitrarily any real number.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                You can conclude that$$F(x)=F'(1)ln x+C$$where $C=0$ since $F(1)=0$ ( let $x=y=1$ ) therefore $$F(x)=F'(1)ln x={log_e xover log_e e^{F'(1)}}=log_{e^{F'(x)}}x$$hence you can write $$a=e^{F'(1)}$$ where $F'(1)$ is arbitrarily any real number.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  You can conclude that$$F(x)=F'(1)ln x+C$$where $C=0$ since $F(1)=0$ ( let $x=y=1$ ) therefore $$F(x)=F'(1)ln x={log_e xover log_e e^{F'(1)}}=log_{e^{F'(x)}}x$$hence you can write $$a=e^{F'(1)}$$ where $F'(1)$ is arbitrarily any real number.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  You can conclude that$$F(x)=F'(1)ln x+C$$where $C=0$ since $F(1)=0$ ( let $x=y=1$ ) therefore $$F(x)=F'(1)ln x={log_e xover log_e e^{F'(1)}}=log_{e^{F'(x)}}x$$hence you can write $$a=e^{F'(1)}$$ where $F'(1)$ is arbitrarily any real number.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 17 at 7:23









                  Mostafa Ayaz

                  12.8k3733




                  12.8k3733






























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