How to prove when this series of polynomials is convergent and when it is divergent?











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Let $P$ and $Q$ be polynomials of degree $k$ and $m$ and suppose $Q(n)ne0forall ninmathbb N$.



Prove that $sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{P(n)}{Q(n)}$ is convergent if $mge k+2$ and divergent if $mle k+1$.



Can someone point me in the right direction? I have tried to transform into something telescoping and see if the terms cancel each other out but with no result.



Other than that, the only thing I can think of is trying induction but I feel as if there most likely is a much better way to prove it using other thereoms. Possibly the tail lemma.










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  • Before you start to prove anything you should (I suggest) ask yourself how big/small (roughly speaking) the $n$-th term is. It seems to me that it should be rather like $n^{k-m}$. Oh, maybe I should compare my series with ....
    – ancientmathematician
    Nov 17 at 14:17















up vote
0
down vote

favorite
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Let $P$ and $Q$ be polynomials of degree $k$ and $m$ and suppose $Q(n)ne0forall ninmathbb N$.



Prove that $sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{P(n)}{Q(n)}$ is convergent if $mge k+2$ and divergent if $mle k+1$.



Can someone point me in the right direction? I have tried to transform into something telescoping and see if the terms cancel each other out but with no result.



Other than that, the only thing I can think of is trying induction but I feel as if there most likely is a much better way to prove it using other thereoms. Possibly the tail lemma.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Before you start to prove anything you should (I suggest) ask yourself how big/small (roughly speaking) the $n$-th term is. It seems to me that it should be rather like $n^{k-m}$. Oh, maybe I should compare my series with ....
    – ancientmathematician
    Nov 17 at 14:17













up vote
0
down vote

favorite
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up vote
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down vote

favorite
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1





Let $P$ and $Q$ be polynomials of degree $k$ and $m$ and suppose $Q(n)ne0forall ninmathbb N$.



Prove that $sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{P(n)}{Q(n)}$ is convergent if $mge k+2$ and divergent if $mle k+1$.



Can someone point me in the right direction? I have tried to transform into something telescoping and see if the terms cancel each other out but with no result.



Other than that, the only thing I can think of is trying induction but I feel as if there most likely is a much better way to prove it using other thereoms. Possibly the tail lemma.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $P$ and $Q$ be polynomials of degree $k$ and $m$ and suppose $Q(n)ne0forall ninmathbb N$.



Prove that $sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{P(n)}{Q(n)}$ is convergent if $mge k+2$ and divergent if $mle k+1$.



Can someone point me in the right direction? I have tried to transform into something telescoping and see if the terms cancel each other out but with no result.



Other than that, the only thing I can think of is trying induction but I feel as if there most likely is a much better way to prove it using other thereoms. Possibly the tail lemma.







sequences-and-series polynomials convergence divergent-series






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edited Nov 17 at 13:45









Parcly Taxel

41k137198




41k137198










asked Nov 17 at 13:33









CruZ

153




153












  • Before you start to prove anything you should (I suggest) ask yourself how big/small (roughly speaking) the $n$-th term is. It seems to me that it should be rather like $n^{k-m}$. Oh, maybe I should compare my series with ....
    – ancientmathematician
    Nov 17 at 14:17


















  • Before you start to prove anything you should (I suggest) ask yourself how big/small (roughly speaking) the $n$-th term is. It seems to me that it should be rather like $n^{k-m}$. Oh, maybe I should compare my series with ....
    – ancientmathematician
    Nov 17 at 14:17
















Before you start to prove anything you should (I suggest) ask yourself how big/small (roughly speaking) the $n$-th term is. It seems to me that it should be rather like $n^{k-m}$. Oh, maybe I should compare my series with ....
– ancientmathematician
Nov 17 at 14:17




Before you start to prove anything you should (I suggest) ask yourself how big/small (roughly speaking) the $n$-th term is. It seems to me that it should be rather like $n^{k-m}$. Oh, maybe I should compare my series with ....
– ancientmathematician
Nov 17 at 14:17










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If $m ge k+2$ and $n$ is large enough, then there exists $c_1>0$ such that



$$left| frac{Q(n)}{P(n)}right| ge c_1n^{m-k} ge c_1n^2$$



that is $$left| frac{P(n)}{Q(n)}right| le frac{c_1}{n^{2}}$$



Hence by comparison test, we have the result.



Also, if $m le k+1$, WLOG, we assume that $P$ and $Q$ have positive leading coefficient. (Suppose not, we study its negative instead).



If $n$ is large enough, there exists $c_2>0$ such that
$$frac{P(n)}{Q(n)} ge c_2n^{k-m} ge frac{c_2}{n}$$



Again, by comparison test, we have the result.






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  • Thank you, that helped a lot!
    – CruZ
    Nov 18 at 8:53













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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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up vote
0
down vote



accepted










If $m ge k+2$ and $n$ is large enough, then there exists $c_1>0$ such that



$$left| frac{Q(n)}{P(n)}right| ge c_1n^{m-k} ge c_1n^2$$



that is $$left| frac{P(n)}{Q(n)}right| le frac{c_1}{n^{2}}$$



Hence by comparison test, we have the result.



Also, if $m le k+1$, WLOG, we assume that $P$ and $Q$ have positive leading coefficient. (Suppose not, we study its negative instead).



If $n$ is large enough, there exists $c_2>0$ such that
$$frac{P(n)}{Q(n)} ge c_2n^{k-m} ge frac{c_2}{n}$$



Again, by comparison test, we have the result.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you, that helped a lot!
    – CruZ
    Nov 18 at 8:53

















up vote
0
down vote



accepted










If $m ge k+2$ and $n$ is large enough, then there exists $c_1>0$ such that



$$left| frac{Q(n)}{P(n)}right| ge c_1n^{m-k} ge c_1n^2$$



that is $$left| frac{P(n)}{Q(n)}right| le frac{c_1}{n^{2}}$$



Hence by comparison test, we have the result.



Also, if $m le k+1$, WLOG, we assume that $P$ and $Q$ have positive leading coefficient. (Suppose not, we study its negative instead).



If $n$ is large enough, there exists $c_2>0$ such that
$$frac{P(n)}{Q(n)} ge c_2n^{k-m} ge frac{c_2}{n}$$



Again, by comparison test, we have the result.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you, that helped a lot!
    – CruZ
    Nov 18 at 8:53















up vote
0
down vote



accepted







up vote
0
down vote



accepted






If $m ge k+2$ and $n$ is large enough, then there exists $c_1>0$ such that



$$left| frac{Q(n)}{P(n)}right| ge c_1n^{m-k} ge c_1n^2$$



that is $$left| frac{P(n)}{Q(n)}right| le frac{c_1}{n^{2}}$$



Hence by comparison test, we have the result.



Also, if $m le k+1$, WLOG, we assume that $P$ and $Q$ have positive leading coefficient. (Suppose not, we study its negative instead).



If $n$ is large enough, there exists $c_2>0$ such that
$$frac{P(n)}{Q(n)} ge c_2n^{k-m} ge frac{c_2}{n}$$



Again, by comparison test, we have the result.






share|cite|improve this answer












If $m ge k+2$ and $n$ is large enough, then there exists $c_1>0$ such that



$$left| frac{Q(n)}{P(n)}right| ge c_1n^{m-k} ge c_1n^2$$



that is $$left| frac{P(n)}{Q(n)}right| le frac{c_1}{n^{2}}$$



Hence by comparison test, we have the result.



Also, if $m le k+1$, WLOG, we assume that $P$ and $Q$ have positive leading coefficient. (Suppose not, we study its negative instead).



If $n$ is large enough, there exists $c_2>0$ such that
$$frac{P(n)}{Q(n)} ge c_2n^{k-m} ge frac{c_2}{n}$$



Again, by comparison test, we have the result.







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answered Nov 17 at 14:29









Siong Thye Goh

94.9k1462115




94.9k1462115












  • Thank you, that helped a lot!
    – CruZ
    Nov 18 at 8:53




















  • Thank you, that helped a lot!
    – CruZ
    Nov 18 at 8:53


















Thank you, that helped a lot!
– CruZ
Nov 18 at 8:53






Thank you, that helped a lot!
– CruZ
Nov 18 at 8:53




















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