Balls in bins: Prove that the probability that there is some bins of $k+1$ or more balls is at most $frac...











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












(Using Chebyshev's inequality and Union bound)



Suppose that we throw $n$ balls into n bins uniformly at random. Let $k≥sqrt n$ be a positive integer Show that with probability at least $1-frac n{k^2}$, no bin has strictly more than $k$ balls.

Prove that the probability that there is some bins of $k+1$ or more balls is at most $frac n{k^2}$.










share|cite|improve this question




























    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    (Using Chebyshev's inequality and Union bound)



    Suppose that we throw $n$ balls into n bins uniformly at random. Let $k≥sqrt n$ be a positive integer Show that with probability at least $1-frac n{k^2}$, no bin has strictly more than $k$ balls.

    Prove that the probability that there is some bins of $k+1$ or more balls is at most $frac n{k^2}$.










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      (Using Chebyshev's inequality and Union bound)



      Suppose that we throw $n$ balls into n bins uniformly at random. Let $k≥sqrt n$ be a positive integer Show that with probability at least $1-frac n{k^2}$, no bin has strictly more than $k$ balls.

      Prove that the probability that there is some bins of $k+1$ or more balls is at most $frac n{k^2}$.










      share|cite|improve this question















      (Using Chebyshev's inequality and Union bound)



      Suppose that we throw $n$ balls into n bins uniformly at random. Let $k≥sqrt n$ be a positive integer Show that with probability at least $1-frac n{k^2}$, no bin has strictly more than $k$ balls.

      Prove that the probability that there is some bins of $k+1$ or more balls is at most $frac n{k^2}$.







      probability balls-in-bins






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Nov 18 at 7:11









      idea

      1




      1










      asked Nov 18 at 2:59









      user8863554

      13




      13






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          Consider of the distribution of balls that land in a particular bin, $X$. This will be a binomial distribution. Its mean is $ncdot$$1over n$$=1$ and its variance is $ncdot$$1over n$$cdot(1-$$1over n$$)$$=1-$$1over n$. Then Chebyshev tells us $P(|X-1|ge kcdot(1-$$1 over n$$)) le$$ 1over k^2$. For $1le klt n$, since $kover n$$lt 1$ this means $P(|X| ge k+1) le $$1over k^2$. Now if $k ge sqrt n$ then the probability of one of the n bins having more than k balls will be at most $nover k^2$ by the union bound (for $k lt sqrt n$ the upper bound we get is greater than 1 and so is meaningless). For the case $k=n$ simply note the $P(X=n)=($$1over n$$)^n$ so the union bound gives $P($n balls land in some box$)=$$n over n^n$$le$$ nover n^2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • thanks for you answer, but does the denominator in the last fraction should be k^2 ?
            – user8863554
            Nov 20 at 1:41










          • In the last inequality we are only considering the case k=n so the denominator does equal k^2. Sorry for the confusion.
            – Mark
            Nov 21 at 3:59










          • Thank you so much
            – user8863554
            Nov 27 at 15:02











          Your Answer





          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          });
          });
          }, "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function() {
          var channelOptions = {
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          };
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
          createEditor();
          });
          }
          else {
          createEditor();
          }
          });

          function createEditor() {
          StackExchange.prepareEditor({
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: true,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          imageUploader: {
          brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
          contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
          allowUrls: true
          },
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          });


          }
          });














          draft saved

          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3003088%2fballs-in-bins-prove-that-the-probability-that-there-is-some-bins-of-k1-or-mo%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown

























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          Consider of the distribution of balls that land in a particular bin, $X$. This will be a binomial distribution. Its mean is $ncdot$$1over n$$=1$ and its variance is $ncdot$$1over n$$cdot(1-$$1over n$$)$$=1-$$1over n$. Then Chebyshev tells us $P(|X-1|ge kcdot(1-$$1 over n$$)) le$$ 1over k^2$. For $1le klt n$, since $kover n$$lt 1$ this means $P(|X| ge k+1) le $$1over k^2$. Now if $k ge sqrt n$ then the probability of one of the n bins having more than k balls will be at most $nover k^2$ by the union bound (for $k lt sqrt n$ the upper bound we get is greater than 1 and so is meaningless). For the case $k=n$ simply note the $P(X=n)=($$1over n$$)^n$ so the union bound gives $P($n balls land in some box$)=$$n over n^n$$le$$ nover n^2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • thanks for you answer, but does the denominator in the last fraction should be k^2 ?
            – user8863554
            Nov 20 at 1:41










          • In the last inequality we are only considering the case k=n so the denominator does equal k^2. Sorry for the confusion.
            – Mark
            Nov 21 at 3:59










          • Thank you so much
            – user8863554
            Nov 27 at 15:02















          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted










          Consider of the distribution of balls that land in a particular bin, $X$. This will be a binomial distribution. Its mean is $ncdot$$1over n$$=1$ and its variance is $ncdot$$1over n$$cdot(1-$$1over n$$)$$=1-$$1over n$. Then Chebyshev tells us $P(|X-1|ge kcdot(1-$$1 over n$$)) le$$ 1over k^2$. For $1le klt n$, since $kover n$$lt 1$ this means $P(|X| ge k+1) le $$1over k^2$. Now if $k ge sqrt n$ then the probability of one of the n bins having more than k balls will be at most $nover k^2$ by the union bound (for $k lt sqrt n$ the upper bound we get is greater than 1 and so is meaningless). For the case $k=n$ simply note the $P(X=n)=($$1over n$$)^n$ so the union bound gives $P($n balls land in some box$)=$$n over n^n$$le$$ nover n^2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • thanks for you answer, but does the denominator in the last fraction should be k^2 ?
            – user8863554
            Nov 20 at 1:41










          • In the last inequality we are only considering the case k=n so the denominator does equal k^2. Sorry for the confusion.
            – Mark
            Nov 21 at 3:59










          • Thank you so much
            – user8863554
            Nov 27 at 15:02













          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          0
          down vote



          accepted






          Consider of the distribution of balls that land in a particular bin, $X$. This will be a binomial distribution. Its mean is $ncdot$$1over n$$=1$ and its variance is $ncdot$$1over n$$cdot(1-$$1over n$$)$$=1-$$1over n$. Then Chebyshev tells us $P(|X-1|ge kcdot(1-$$1 over n$$)) le$$ 1over k^2$. For $1le klt n$, since $kover n$$lt 1$ this means $P(|X| ge k+1) le $$1over k^2$. Now if $k ge sqrt n$ then the probability of one of the n bins having more than k balls will be at most $nover k^2$ by the union bound (for $k lt sqrt n$ the upper bound we get is greater than 1 and so is meaningless). For the case $k=n$ simply note the $P(X=n)=($$1over n$$)^n$ so the union bound gives $P($n balls land in some box$)=$$n over n^n$$le$$ nover n^2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Consider of the distribution of balls that land in a particular bin, $X$. This will be a binomial distribution. Its mean is $ncdot$$1over n$$=1$ and its variance is $ncdot$$1over n$$cdot(1-$$1over n$$)$$=1-$$1over n$. Then Chebyshev tells us $P(|X-1|ge kcdot(1-$$1 over n$$)) le$$ 1over k^2$. For $1le klt n$, since $kover n$$lt 1$ this means $P(|X| ge k+1) le $$1over k^2$. Now if $k ge sqrt n$ then the probability of one of the n bins having more than k balls will be at most $nover k^2$ by the union bound (for $k lt sqrt n$ the upper bound we get is greater than 1 and so is meaningless). For the case $k=n$ simply note the $P(X=n)=($$1over n$$)^n$ so the union bound gives $P($n balls land in some box$)=$$n over n^n$$le$$ nover n^2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 18 at 7:15









          Mark

          3916




          3916












          • thanks for you answer, but does the denominator in the last fraction should be k^2 ?
            – user8863554
            Nov 20 at 1:41










          • In the last inequality we are only considering the case k=n so the denominator does equal k^2. Sorry for the confusion.
            – Mark
            Nov 21 at 3:59










          • Thank you so much
            – user8863554
            Nov 27 at 15:02


















          • thanks for you answer, but does the denominator in the last fraction should be k^2 ?
            – user8863554
            Nov 20 at 1:41










          • In the last inequality we are only considering the case k=n so the denominator does equal k^2. Sorry for the confusion.
            – Mark
            Nov 21 at 3:59










          • Thank you so much
            – user8863554
            Nov 27 at 15:02
















          thanks for you answer, but does the denominator in the last fraction should be k^2 ?
          – user8863554
          Nov 20 at 1:41




          thanks for you answer, but does the denominator in the last fraction should be k^2 ?
          – user8863554
          Nov 20 at 1:41












          In the last inequality we are only considering the case k=n so the denominator does equal k^2. Sorry for the confusion.
          – Mark
          Nov 21 at 3:59




          In the last inequality we are only considering the case k=n so the denominator does equal k^2. Sorry for the confusion.
          – Mark
          Nov 21 at 3:59












          Thank you so much
          – user8863554
          Nov 27 at 15:02




          Thank you so much
          – user8863554
          Nov 27 at 15:02


















          draft saved

          draft discarded




















































          Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





          Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


          Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3003088%2fballs-in-bins-prove-that-the-probability-that-there-is-some-bins-of-k1-or-mo%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown





















































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown

































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown







          Popular posts from this blog

          QoS: MAC-Priority for clients behind a repeater

          Ивакино (Тотемский район)

          Can't locate Autom4te/ChannelDefs.pm in @INC (when it definitely is there)