Show that $xln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on $(0,infty)$











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I am trying to show that $f(x) = xln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on the interval $(0,infty)$. The solution given here Show $f(x)=xln x$ is not uniformly continuous does it by using $epsilon-delta$ but I want to do it by sequences if possible. The "x" term is messing things up because I cannot take $$x_n = textrm e^{-n } $$ and $$y_n = textrm e^{-n + 1}$$ because $|f(x) -f(y)|$ does not work out. Any ideas on sequences I can take?










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  • With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 18 at 4:23










  • Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
    – Matt
    Nov 18 at 4:37















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












I am trying to show that $f(x) = xln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on the interval $(0,infty)$. The solution given here Show $f(x)=xln x$ is not uniformly continuous does it by using $epsilon-delta$ but I want to do it by sequences if possible. The "x" term is messing things up because I cannot take $$x_n = textrm e^{-n } $$ and $$y_n = textrm e^{-n + 1}$$ because $|f(x) -f(y)|$ does not work out. Any ideas on sequences I can take?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 18 at 4:23










  • Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
    – Matt
    Nov 18 at 4:37













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











I am trying to show that $f(x) = xln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on the interval $(0,infty)$. The solution given here Show $f(x)=xln x$ is not uniformly continuous does it by using $epsilon-delta$ but I want to do it by sequences if possible. The "x" term is messing things up because I cannot take $$x_n = textrm e^{-n } $$ and $$y_n = textrm e^{-n + 1}$$ because $|f(x) -f(y)|$ does not work out. Any ideas on sequences I can take?










share|cite|improve this question















I am trying to show that $f(x) = xln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on the interval $(0,infty)$. The solution given here Show $f(x)=xln x$ is not uniformly continuous does it by using $epsilon-delta$ but I want to do it by sequences if possible. The "x" term is messing things up because I cannot take $$x_n = textrm e^{-n } $$ and $$y_n = textrm e^{-n + 1}$$ because $|f(x) -f(y)|$ does not work out. Any ideas on sequences I can take?







real-analysis sequences-and-series continuity






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edited Nov 18 at 4:20









Lord Shark the Unknown

98.1k958131




98.1k958131










asked Nov 18 at 4:14









Matt

185




185












  • With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 18 at 4:23










  • Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
    – Matt
    Nov 18 at 4:37


















  • With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 18 at 4:23










  • Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
    – Matt
    Nov 18 at 4:37
















With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 18 at 4:23




With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 18 at 4:23












Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 4:37




Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 4:37










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Take $x_n = e^{n^2}$ and $y_n = x_n + 1/n$. Note that $|x_n - y_n| to 0$.



By the MVT there exists $xi_n in (x_n ,x_n + 1/n)$ such that



$$y_n ln y_n - x_n ln x_n = (1 + ln xi_n)/n > (1+ln x_n)/n > n to +infty$$



More generally



A differentiable function $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ is not uniformly continuous if $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $x to +infty$. (It is not enough for $f'$ to be unbounded.)



For any $delta > 0$ take $x in (0,infty)$ and $y = x + delta/2$. We have $|x-y| < delta$, but there exists $xi in (x,y)$ such that



$$|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||y-x| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$$ If $|f'(x)| to +infty$ then there exists $X$ such that for all $xi > x > X$ we have $|f'(xi)| > 2/delta$ and, hence $|f(x) - f(y)| > 1$.



So for any $delta > 0$ there exists $x,y in (0,infty)$ with $|x - y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y) > 1$, and $f$ is not uniformly continuous.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
    – RRL
    Nov 18 at 6:50








  • 1




    @bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
    – RRL
    Nov 18 at 7:02












  • thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
    – Matt
    Nov 18 at 19:15










  • @Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
    – RRL
    Nov 18 at 19:37


















up vote
1
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Let $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+frac 1 {log, n}$. Note that $(n+frac 1 {log, n}) log (n+frac 1 {log, n})-n log , n geq frac 1 {log, n} (log, n) geq 1$.






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    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Any differentiable function $f$
    for which
    $f'(x)$ is unbounded
    is not uniformly continuous.



    $(xln(x))'
    =1+ln(x)
    $

    is unbounded as
    $x to infty$
    so it is not
    uniformly continuous.






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      I don't think so..Please see this
      – Empty
      Nov 18 at 5:35






    • 1




      @marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
      – Mark Viola
      Nov 18 at 5:37










    • For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 5:39













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    3 Answers
    3






    active

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

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    active

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    active

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    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    Take $x_n = e^{n^2}$ and $y_n = x_n + 1/n$. Note that $|x_n - y_n| to 0$.



    By the MVT there exists $xi_n in (x_n ,x_n + 1/n)$ such that



    $$y_n ln y_n - x_n ln x_n = (1 + ln xi_n)/n > (1+ln x_n)/n > n to +infty$$



    More generally



    A differentiable function $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ is not uniformly continuous if $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $x to +infty$. (It is not enough for $f'$ to be unbounded.)



    For any $delta > 0$ take $x in (0,infty)$ and $y = x + delta/2$. We have $|x-y| < delta$, but there exists $xi in (x,y)$ such that



    $$|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||y-x| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$$ If $|f'(x)| to +infty$ then there exists $X$ such that for all $xi > x > X$ we have $|f'(xi)| > 2/delta$ and, hence $|f(x) - f(y)| > 1$.



    So for any $delta > 0$ there exists $x,y in (0,infty)$ with $|x - y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y) > 1$, and $f$ is not uniformly continuous.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 6:50








    • 1




      @bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 7:02












    • thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
      – Matt
      Nov 18 at 19:15










    • @Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 19:37















    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    Take $x_n = e^{n^2}$ and $y_n = x_n + 1/n$. Note that $|x_n - y_n| to 0$.



    By the MVT there exists $xi_n in (x_n ,x_n + 1/n)$ such that



    $$y_n ln y_n - x_n ln x_n = (1 + ln xi_n)/n > (1+ln x_n)/n > n to +infty$$



    More generally



    A differentiable function $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ is not uniformly continuous if $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $x to +infty$. (It is not enough for $f'$ to be unbounded.)



    For any $delta > 0$ take $x in (0,infty)$ and $y = x + delta/2$. We have $|x-y| < delta$, but there exists $xi in (x,y)$ such that



    $$|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||y-x| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$$ If $|f'(x)| to +infty$ then there exists $X$ such that for all $xi > x > X$ we have $|f'(xi)| > 2/delta$ and, hence $|f(x) - f(y)| > 1$.



    So for any $delta > 0$ there exists $x,y in (0,infty)$ with $|x - y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y) > 1$, and $f$ is not uniformly continuous.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 6:50








    • 1




      @bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 7:02












    • thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
      – Matt
      Nov 18 at 19:15










    • @Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 19:37













    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted






    Take $x_n = e^{n^2}$ and $y_n = x_n + 1/n$. Note that $|x_n - y_n| to 0$.



    By the MVT there exists $xi_n in (x_n ,x_n + 1/n)$ such that



    $$y_n ln y_n - x_n ln x_n = (1 + ln xi_n)/n > (1+ln x_n)/n > n to +infty$$



    More generally



    A differentiable function $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ is not uniformly continuous if $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $x to +infty$. (It is not enough for $f'$ to be unbounded.)



    For any $delta > 0$ take $x in (0,infty)$ and $y = x + delta/2$. We have $|x-y| < delta$, but there exists $xi in (x,y)$ such that



    $$|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||y-x| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$$ If $|f'(x)| to +infty$ then there exists $X$ such that for all $xi > x > X$ we have $|f'(xi)| > 2/delta$ and, hence $|f(x) - f(y)| > 1$.



    So for any $delta > 0$ there exists $x,y in (0,infty)$ with $|x - y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y) > 1$, and $f$ is not uniformly continuous.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    Take $x_n = e^{n^2}$ and $y_n = x_n + 1/n$. Note that $|x_n - y_n| to 0$.



    By the MVT there exists $xi_n in (x_n ,x_n + 1/n)$ such that



    $$y_n ln y_n - x_n ln x_n = (1 + ln xi_n)/n > (1+ln x_n)/n > n to +infty$$



    More generally



    A differentiable function $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ is not uniformly continuous if $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $x to +infty$. (It is not enough for $f'$ to be unbounded.)



    For any $delta > 0$ take $x in (0,infty)$ and $y = x + delta/2$. We have $|x-y| < delta$, but there exists $xi in (x,y)$ such that



    $$|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||y-x| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$$ If $|f'(x)| to +infty$ then there exists $X$ such that for all $xi > x > X$ we have $|f'(xi)| > 2/delta$ and, hence $|f(x) - f(y)| > 1$.



    So for any $delta > 0$ there exists $x,y in (0,infty)$ with $|x - y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y) > 1$, and $f$ is not uniformly continuous.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 18 at 6:04

























    answered Nov 18 at 5:19









    RRL

    47.2k42368




    47.2k42368












    • The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 6:50








    • 1




      @bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 7:02












    • thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
      – Matt
      Nov 18 at 19:15










    • @Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 19:37


















    • The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 6:50








    • 1




      @bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 7:02












    • thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
      – Matt
      Nov 18 at 19:15










    • @Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
      – RRL
      Nov 18 at 19:37
















    The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
    – RRL
    Nov 18 at 6:50






    The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
    – RRL
    Nov 18 at 6:50






    1




    1




    @bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
    – RRL
    Nov 18 at 7:02






    @bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
    – RRL
    Nov 18 at 7:02














    thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
    – Matt
    Nov 18 at 19:15




    thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
    – Matt
    Nov 18 at 19:15












    @Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
    – RRL
    Nov 18 at 19:37




    @Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
    – RRL
    Nov 18 at 19:37










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Let $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+frac 1 {log, n}$. Note that $(n+frac 1 {log, n}) log (n+frac 1 {log, n})-n log , n geq frac 1 {log, n} (log, n) geq 1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Let $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+frac 1 {log, n}$. Note that $(n+frac 1 {log, n}) log (n+frac 1 {log, n})-n log , n geq frac 1 {log, n} (log, n) geq 1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Let $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+frac 1 {log, n}$. Note that $(n+frac 1 {log, n}) log (n+frac 1 {log, n})-n log , n geq frac 1 {log, n} (log, n) geq 1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Let $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+frac 1 {log, n}$. Note that $(n+frac 1 {log, n}) log (n+frac 1 {log, n})-n log , n geq frac 1 {log, n} (log, n) geq 1$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 18 at 5:21









        Kavi Rama Murthy

        43.6k31751




        43.6k31751






















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Any differentiable function $f$
            for which
            $f'(x)$ is unbounded
            is not uniformly continuous.



            $(xln(x))'
            =1+ln(x)
            $

            is unbounded as
            $x to infty$
            so it is not
            uniformly continuous.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 1




              I don't think so..Please see this
              – Empty
              Nov 18 at 5:35






            • 1




              @marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
              – Mark Viola
              Nov 18 at 5:37










            • For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
              – RRL
              Nov 18 at 5:39

















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Any differentiable function $f$
            for which
            $f'(x)$ is unbounded
            is not uniformly continuous.



            $(xln(x))'
            =1+ln(x)
            $

            is unbounded as
            $x to infty$
            so it is not
            uniformly continuous.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 1




              I don't think so..Please see this
              – Empty
              Nov 18 at 5:35






            • 1




              @marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
              – Mark Viola
              Nov 18 at 5:37










            • For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
              – RRL
              Nov 18 at 5:39















            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            Any differentiable function $f$
            for which
            $f'(x)$ is unbounded
            is not uniformly continuous.



            $(xln(x))'
            =1+ln(x)
            $

            is unbounded as
            $x to infty$
            so it is not
            uniformly continuous.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Any differentiable function $f$
            for which
            $f'(x)$ is unbounded
            is not uniformly continuous.



            $(xln(x))'
            =1+ln(x)
            $

            is unbounded as
            $x to infty$
            so it is not
            uniformly continuous.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 18 at 5:32









            marty cohen

            71.5k546123




            71.5k546123








            • 1




              I don't think so..Please see this
              – Empty
              Nov 18 at 5:35






            • 1




              @marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
              – Mark Viola
              Nov 18 at 5:37










            • For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
              – RRL
              Nov 18 at 5:39
















            • 1




              I don't think so..Please see this
              – Empty
              Nov 18 at 5:35






            • 1




              @marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
              – Mark Viola
              Nov 18 at 5:37










            • For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
              – RRL
              Nov 18 at 5:39










            1




            1




            I don't think so..Please see this
            – Empty
            Nov 18 at 5:35




            I don't think so..Please see this
            – Empty
            Nov 18 at 5:35




            1




            1




            @marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
            – Mark Viola
            Nov 18 at 5:37




            @marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
            – Mark Viola
            Nov 18 at 5:37












            For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
            – RRL
            Nov 18 at 5:39






            For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
            – RRL
            Nov 18 at 5:39




















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