Show that $xln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on $(0,infty)$
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I am trying to show that $f(x) = xln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on the interval $(0,infty)$. The solution given here Show $f(x)=xln x$ is not uniformly continuous does it by using $epsilon-delta$ but I want to do it by sequences if possible. The "x" term is messing things up because I cannot take $$x_n = textrm e^{-n } $$ and $$y_n = textrm e^{-n + 1}$$ because $|f(x) -f(y)|$ does not work out. Any ideas on sequences I can take?
real-analysis sequences-and-series continuity
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I am trying to show that $f(x) = xln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on the interval $(0,infty)$. The solution given here Show $f(x)=xln x$ is not uniformly continuous does it by using $epsilon-delta$ but I want to do it by sequences if possible. The "x" term is messing things up because I cannot take $$x_n = textrm e^{-n } $$ and $$y_n = textrm e^{-n + 1}$$ because $|f(x) -f(y)|$ does not work out. Any ideas on sequences I can take?
real-analysis sequences-and-series continuity
With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 18 at 4:23
Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 4:37
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I am trying to show that $f(x) = xln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on the interval $(0,infty)$. The solution given here Show $f(x)=xln x$ is not uniformly continuous does it by using $epsilon-delta$ but I want to do it by sequences if possible. The "x" term is messing things up because I cannot take $$x_n = textrm e^{-n } $$ and $$y_n = textrm e^{-n + 1}$$ because $|f(x) -f(y)|$ does not work out. Any ideas on sequences I can take?
real-analysis sequences-and-series continuity
I am trying to show that $f(x) = xln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on the interval $(0,infty)$. The solution given here Show $f(x)=xln x$ is not uniformly continuous does it by using $epsilon-delta$ but I want to do it by sequences if possible. The "x" term is messing things up because I cannot take $$x_n = textrm e^{-n } $$ and $$y_n = textrm e^{-n + 1}$$ because $|f(x) -f(y)|$ does not work out. Any ideas on sequences I can take?
real-analysis sequences-and-series continuity
real-analysis sequences-and-series continuity
edited Nov 18 at 4:20
Lord Shark the Unknown
98.1k958131
98.1k958131
asked Nov 18 at 4:14
Matt
185
185
With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 18 at 4:23
Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 4:37
add a comment |
With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 18 at 4:23
Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 4:37
With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 18 at 4:23
With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 18 at 4:23
Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 4:37
Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 4:37
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Take $x_n = e^{n^2}$ and $y_n = x_n + 1/n$. Note that $|x_n - y_n| to 0$.
By the MVT there exists $xi_n in (x_n ,x_n + 1/n)$ such that
$$y_n ln y_n - x_n ln x_n = (1 + ln xi_n)/n > (1+ln x_n)/n > n to +infty$$
More generally
A differentiable function $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ is not uniformly continuous if $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $x to +infty$. (It is not enough for $f'$ to be unbounded.)
For any $delta > 0$ take $x in (0,infty)$ and $y = x + delta/2$. We have $|x-y| < delta$, but there exists $xi in (x,y)$ such that
$$|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||y-x| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$$ If $|f'(x)| to +infty$ then there exists $X$ such that for all $xi > x > X$ we have $|f'(xi)| > 2/delta$ and, hence $|f(x) - f(y)| > 1$.
So for any $delta > 0$ there exists $x,y in (0,infty)$ with $|x - y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y) > 1$, and $f$ is not uniformly continuous.
The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 6:50
1
@bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 7:02
thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 19:15
@Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 19:37
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Let $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+frac 1 {log, n}$. Note that $(n+frac 1 {log, n}) log (n+frac 1 {log, n})-n log , n geq frac 1 {log, n} (log, n) geq 1$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Any differentiable function $f$
for which
$f'(x)$ is unbounded
is not uniformly continuous.
$(xln(x))'
=1+ln(x)
$
is unbounded as
$x to infty$
so it is not
uniformly continuous.
1
I don't think so..Please see this
– Empty
Nov 18 at 5:35
1
@marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
– Mark Viola
Nov 18 at 5:37
For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 5:39
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Take $x_n = e^{n^2}$ and $y_n = x_n + 1/n$. Note that $|x_n - y_n| to 0$.
By the MVT there exists $xi_n in (x_n ,x_n + 1/n)$ such that
$$y_n ln y_n - x_n ln x_n = (1 + ln xi_n)/n > (1+ln x_n)/n > n to +infty$$
More generally
A differentiable function $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ is not uniformly continuous if $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $x to +infty$. (It is not enough for $f'$ to be unbounded.)
For any $delta > 0$ take $x in (0,infty)$ and $y = x + delta/2$. We have $|x-y| < delta$, but there exists $xi in (x,y)$ such that
$$|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||y-x| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$$ If $|f'(x)| to +infty$ then there exists $X$ such that for all $xi > x > X$ we have $|f'(xi)| > 2/delta$ and, hence $|f(x) - f(y)| > 1$.
So for any $delta > 0$ there exists $x,y in (0,infty)$ with $|x - y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y) > 1$, and $f$ is not uniformly continuous.
The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 6:50
1
@bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 7:02
thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 19:15
@Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 19:37
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Take $x_n = e^{n^2}$ and $y_n = x_n + 1/n$. Note that $|x_n - y_n| to 0$.
By the MVT there exists $xi_n in (x_n ,x_n + 1/n)$ such that
$$y_n ln y_n - x_n ln x_n = (1 + ln xi_n)/n > (1+ln x_n)/n > n to +infty$$
More generally
A differentiable function $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ is not uniformly continuous if $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $x to +infty$. (It is not enough for $f'$ to be unbounded.)
For any $delta > 0$ take $x in (0,infty)$ and $y = x + delta/2$. We have $|x-y| < delta$, but there exists $xi in (x,y)$ such that
$$|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||y-x| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$$ If $|f'(x)| to +infty$ then there exists $X$ such that for all $xi > x > X$ we have $|f'(xi)| > 2/delta$ and, hence $|f(x) - f(y)| > 1$.
So for any $delta > 0$ there exists $x,y in (0,infty)$ with $|x - y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y) > 1$, and $f$ is not uniformly continuous.
The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 6:50
1
@bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 7:02
thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 19:15
@Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 19:37
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Take $x_n = e^{n^2}$ and $y_n = x_n + 1/n$. Note that $|x_n - y_n| to 0$.
By the MVT there exists $xi_n in (x_n ,x_n + 1/n)$ such that
$$y_n ln y_n - x_n ln x_n = (1 + ln xi_n)/n > (1+ln x_n)/n > n to +infty$$
More generally
A differentiable function $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ is not uniformly continuous if $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $x to +infty$. (It is not enough for $f'$ to be unbounded.)
For any $delta > 0$ take $x in (0,infty)$ and $y = x + delta/2$. We have $|x-y| < delta$, but there exists $xi in (x,y)$ such that
$$|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||y-x| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$$ If $|f'(x)| to +infty$ then there exists $X$ such that for all $xi > x > X$ we have $|f'(xi)| > 2/delta$ and, hence $|f(x) - f(y)| > 1$.
So for any $delta > 0$ there exists $x,y in (0,infty)$ with $|x - y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y) > 1$, and $f$ is not uniformly continuous.
Take $x_n = e^{n^2}$ and $y_n = x_n + 1/n$. Note that $|x_n - y_n| to 0$.
By the MVT there exists $xi_n in (x_n ,x_n + 1/n)$ such that
$$y_n ln y_n - x_n ln x_n = (1 + ln xi_n)/n > (1+ln x_n)/n > n to +infty$$
More generally
A differentiable function $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ is not uniformly continuous if $|f'(x)| to +infty$ as $x to +infty$. (It is not enough for $f'$ to be unbounded.)
For any $delta > 0$ take $x in (0,infty)$ and $y = x + delta/2$. We have $|x-y| < delta$, but there exists $xi in (x,y)$ such that
$$|f(x) - f(y)| = |f'(xi)||y-x| = |f'(xi)|delta/2$$ If $|f'(x)| to +infty$ then there exists $X$ such that for all $xi > x > X$ we have $|f'(xi)| > 2/delta$ and, hence $|f(x) - f(y)| > 1$.
So for any $delta > 0$ there exists $x,y in (0,infty)$ with $|x - y| < delta$ and $|f(x) - f(y) > 1$, and $f$ is not uniformly continuous.
edited Nov 18 at 6:04
answered Nov 18 at 5:19
RRL
47.2k42368
47.2k42368
The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 6:50
1
@bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 7:02
thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 19:15
@Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 19:37
add a comment |
The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 6:50
1
@bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 7:02
thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 19:15
@Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 19:37
The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 6:50
The question here is about the uniform continuity of a function on an infinite interval , that happens to have a derivative where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to infty$. Such a function can't be uniformly continuous. I'm simply (1) using this to construct the sequences OP requested, and (2) explaining the underlying principle. There are UC functions on $(0,infty)$ with unbounded derivatives and UC functions on $[0,1]$ like $f(x) = sqrt{x}$ where $f'(x) to infty$ as $x to 0$ The principle I am using only pertains to the case where $|f'(x)| to infty$ as $x to infty$.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 6:50
1
1
@bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 7:02
@bof: Yes if $f$ is UC on $[1,infty)$, then $|f(x)| = mathcal{O}(x)$ as $x to infty$. There are many ways to answer this question. I just took one approach. Although unless you already know the $mathcal{O}(x)$ result it is not as easy to prove as the derivative result if you are starting from first principles.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 7:02
thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 19:15
thanks for the response!! @RRL , so in a general function that has a derivative that goes to infinity as x goes to infinity cant be uniformly continuous?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 19:15
@Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 19:37
@Matt: Yes. If the derivative is bounded then it's uniformly continuous like $f(x) =x$. If the limit of the derivative as $x to infty$ is $pm infty$ then it's not uniformly continuous like $f(x) = x^2$. If it oscillates with no limit but is unbounded it may or may not be uniformly continuous.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 19:37
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Let $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+frac 1 {log, n}$. Note that $(n+frac 1 {log, n}) log (n+frac 1 {log, n})-n log , n geq frac 1 {log, n} (log, n) geq 1$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Let $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+frac 1 {log, n}$. Note that $(n+frac 1 {log, n}) log (n+frac 1 {log, n})-n log , n geq frac 1 {log, n} (log, n) geq 1$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Let $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+frac 1 {log, n}$. Note that $(n+frac 1 {log, n}) log (n+frac 1 {log, n})-n log , n geq frac 1 {log, n} (log, n) geq 1$.
Let $x_n=n$ and $y_n=n+frac 1 {log, n}$. Note that $(n+frac 1 {log, n}) log (n+frac 1 {log, n})-n log , n geq frac 1 {log, n} (log, n) geq 1$.
answered Nov 18 at 5:21
Kavi Rama Murthy
43.6k31751
43.6k31751
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Any differentiable function $f$
for which
$f'(x)$ is unbounded
is not uniformly continuous.
$(xln(x))'
=1+ln(x)
$
is unbounded as
$x to infty$
so it is not
uniformly continuous.
1
I don't think so..Please see this
– Empty
Nov 18 at 5:35
1
@marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
– Mark Viola
Nov 18 at 5:37
For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 5:39
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Any differentiable function $f$
for which
$f'(x)$ is unbounded
is not uniformly continuous.
$(xln(x))'
=1+ln(x)
$
is unbounded as
$x to infty$
so it is not
uniformly continuous.
1
I don't think so..Please see this
– Empty
Nov 18 at 5:35
1
@marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
– Mark Viola
Nov 18 at 5:37
For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 5:39
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Any differentiable function $f$
for which
$f'(x)$ is unbounded
is not uniformly continuous.
$(xln(x))'
=1+ln(x)
$
is unbounded as
$x to infty$
so it is not
uniformly continuous.
Any differentiable function $f$
for which
$f'(x)$ is unbounded
is not uniformly continuous.
$(xln(x))'
=1+ln(x)
$
is unbounded as
$x to infty$
so it is not
uniformly continuous.
answered Nov 18 at 5:32
marty cohen
71.5k546123
71.5k546123
1
I don't think so..Please see this
– Empty
Nov 18 at 5:35
1
@marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
– Mark Viola
Nov 18 at 5:37
For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 5:39
add a comment |
1
I don't think so..Please see this
– Empty
Nov 18 at 5:35
1
@marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
– Mark Viola
Nov 18 at 5:37
For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 5:39
1
1
I don't think so..Please see this
– Empty
Nov 18 at 5:35
I don't think so..Please see this
– Empty
Nov 18 at 5:35
1
1
@marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
– Mark Viola
Nov 18 at 5:37
@marty Hi! I hope you're doing well. Note that $1+log(x)$ is unbounded near $0$, but $xlog(x)$ is UC on $(0,1)$.
– Mark Viola
Nov 18 at 5:37
For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 5:39
For an unbounded interval, the derivative has to tend to $pm infty$, not merely be unbounded.
– RRL
Nov 18 at 5:39
add a comment |
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With those $x_n$ and $y_n$ you are going in the wrong direction: $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$. You want sequences going off to $infty$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 18 at 4:23
Ohhhhh, so you look for sequences around where the derivative explodes right?
– Matt
Nov 18 at 4:37