Using Semantic Arguments in Proving Validity











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I have to show that $forall x (phi to psi) to (forall x phi to forall x psi)$ is valid using semantic arguments. However, what does "semantic arguments" mean? Do I use rules of inference?










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    semantic arguments refer to models
    – Gödel
    Nov 18 at 4:21















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I have to show that $forall x (phi to psi) to (forall x phi to forall x psi)$ is valid using semantic arguments. However, what does "semantic arguments" mean? Do I use rules of inference?










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  • 2




    semantic arguments refer to models
    – Gödel
    Nov 18 at 4:21













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I have to show that $forall x (phi to psi) to (forall x phi to forall x psi)$ is valid using semantic arguments. However, what does "semantic arguments" mean? Do I use rules of inference?










share|cite|improve this question













I have to show that $forall x (phi to psi) to (forall x phi to forall x psi)$ is valid using semantic arguments. However, what does "semantic arguments" mean? Do I use rules of inference?







logic first-order-logic






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asked Nov 18 at 3:12









numericalorange

1,669311




1,669311








  • 2




    semantic arguments refer to models
    – Gödel
    Nov 18 at 4:21














  • 2




    semantic arguments refer to models
    – Gödel
    Nov 18 at 4:21








2




2




semantic arguments refer to models
– Gödel
Nov 18 at 4:21




semantic arguments refer to models
– Gödel
Nov 18 at 4:21










2 Answers
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When having a logical formula, there're usually two methods to prove validity.



A syntactic one where we use rules of inference only by looking at the syntactic structure of the formula. For instance if we have $P$ and $P rightarrow Q$ then we can syntactically produce Q with a rule called modus ponens $frac{Pquad Prightarrow Q}{Q}$.



A semantic one which consists of interpreting/evaluating the meaning of the formula with respect to a subjective conception of meaning. For instance if we have the propositional formula $phi = P land Q$ its interpreation will be $[![ A land B ]!]_sigma = AND([![ A ]!]_sigma, [![ B ]!]_sigma$) where $sigma$ associates a truth value in ${0, 1}$ to each variables and $AND : {0, 1} times {0, 1} longrightarrow {0, 1}$ is a function reproducing the truth table of $land$. To be valid is to be evaluated to the truth value $1$ for any interpretation.



In first-order logic, we have to extend the method to models to interpret entities in a particular universe. When we write $forall x. P(x)$, the $x$ doesn't refer to a truth value but to an entity (e.g a number). Then we seek an universe making the formula true.



The theorem of soundness and completude relates these two methods by saying that they are equivalents.






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    up vote
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    down vote













    By proving that a formula is valid by semantic arguments one usually means to prove that it is logically valid, that is that it is true in every possible interpretation.



    So what you are asked is to prove that the formula
    $$forall x (varphi to psi) to (forall x varphi to forall x psi)$$
    is true in every interpretation.



    In order to do that you have to use the basic definition of truth for a first-order formula.



    I suggest you try to continue from here and in case you find any difficulty fell free to ask here for some hints.



    I hope this helps.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      When having a logical formula, there're usually two methods to prove validity.



      A syntactic one where we use rules of inference only by looking at the syntactic structure of the formula. For instance if we have $P$ and $P rightarrow Q$ then we can syntactically produce Q with a rule called modus ponens $frac{Pquad Prightarrow Q}{Q}$.



      A semantic one which consists of interpreting/evaluating the meaning of the formula with respect to a subjective conception of meaning. For instance if we have the propositional formula $phi = P land Q$ its interpreation will be $[![ A land B ]!]_sigma = AND([![ A ]!]_sigma, [![ B ]!]_sigma$) where $sigma$ associates a truth value in ${0, 1}$ to each variables and $AND : {0, 1} times {0, 1} longrightarrow {0, 1}$ is a function reproducing the truth table of $land$. To be valid is to be evaluated to the truth value $1$ for any interpretation.



      In first-order logic, we have to extend the method to models to interpret entities in a particular universe. When we write $forall x. P(x)$, the $x$ doesn't refer to a truth value but to an entity (e.g a number). Then we seek an universe making the formula true.



      The theorem of soundness and completude relates these two methods by saying that they are equivalents.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted










        When having a logical formula, there're usually two methods to prove validity.



        A syntactic one where we use rules of inference only by looking at the syntactic structure of the formula. For instance if we have $P$ and $P rightarrow Q$ then we can syntactically produce Q with a rule called modus ponens $frac{Pquad Prightarrow Q}{Q}$.



        A semantic one which consists of interpreting/evaluating the meaning of the formula with respect to a subjective conception of meaning. For instance if we have the propositional formula $phi = P land Q$ its interpreation will be $[![ A land B ]!]_sigma = AND([![ A ]!]_sigma, [![ B ]!]_sigma$) where $sigma$ associates a truth value in ${0, 1}$ to each variables and $AND : {0, 1} times {0, 1} longrightarrow {0, 1}$ is a function reproducing the truth table of $land$. To be valid is to be evaluated to the truth value $1$ for any interpretation.



        In first-order logic, we have to extend the method to models to interpret entities in a particular universe. When we write $forall x. P(x)$, the $x$ doesn't refer to a truth value but to an entity (e.g a number). Then we seek an universe making the formula true.



        The theorem of soundness and completude relates these two methods by saying that they are equivalents.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          When having a logical formula, there're usually two methods to prove validity.



          A syntactic one where we use rules of inference only by looking at the syntactic structure of the formula. For instance if we have $P$ and $P rightarrow Q$ then we can syntactically produce Q with a rule called modus ponens $frac{Pquad Prightarrow Q}{Q}$.



          A semantic one which consists of interpreting/evaluating the meaning of the formula with respect to a subjective conception of meaning. For instance if we have the propositional formula $phi = P land Q$ its interpreation will be $[![ A land B ]!]_sigma = AND([![ A ]!]_sigma, [![ B ]!]_sigma$) where $sigma$ associates a truth value in ${0, 1}$ to each variables and $AND : {0, 1} times {0, 1} longrightarrow {0, 1}$ is a function reproducing the truth table of $land$. To be valid is to be evaluated to the truth value $1$ for any interpretation.



          In first-order logic, we have to extend the method to models to interpret entities in a particular universe. When we write $forall x. P(x)$, the $x$ doesn't refer to a truth value but to an entity (e.g a number). Then we seek an universe making the formula true.



          The theorem of soundness and completude relates these two methods by saying that they are equivalents.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          When having a logical formula, there're usually two methods to prove validity.



          A syntactic one where we use rules of inference only by looking at the syntactic structure of the formula. For instance if we have $P$ and $P rightarrow Q$ then we can syntactically produce Q with a rule called modus ponens $frac{Pquad Prightarrow Q}{Q}$.



          A semantic one which consists of interpreting/evaluating the meaning of the formula with respect to a subjective conception of meaning. For instance if we have the propositional formula $phi = P land Q$ its interpreation will be $[![ A land B ]!]_sigma = AND([![ A ]!]_sigma, [![ B ]!]_sigma$) where $sigma$ associates a truth value in ${0, 1}$ to each variables and $AND : {0, 1} times {0, 1} longrightarrow {0, 1}$ is a function reproducing the truth table of $land$. To be valid is to be evaluated to the truth value $1$ for any interpretation.



          In first-order logic, we have to extend the method to models to interpret entities in a particular universe. When we write $forall x. P(x)$, the $x$ doesn't refer to a truth value but to an entity (e.g a number). Then we seek an universe making the formula true.



          The theorem of soundness and completude relates these two methods by saying that they are equivalents.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 18 at 10:54









          Boris E.

          388113




          388113






















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              By proving that a formula is valid by semantic arguments one usually means to prove that it is logically valid, that is that it is true in every possible interpretation.



              So what you are asked is to prove that the formula
              $$forall x (varphi to psi) to (forall x varphi to forall x psi)$$
              is true in every interpretation.



              In order to do that you have to use the basic definition of truth for a first-order formula.



              I suggest you try to continue from here and in case you find any difficulty fell free to ask here for some hints.



              I hope this helps.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                By proving that a formula is valid by semantic arguments one usually means to prove that it is logically valid, that is that it is true in every possible interpretation.



                So what you are asked is to prove that the formula
                $$forall x (varphi to psi) to (forall x varphi to forall x psi)$$
                is true in every interpretation.



                In order to do that you have to use the basic definition of truth for a first-order formula.



                I suggest you try to continue from here and in case you find any difficulty fell free to ask here for some hints.



                I hope this helps.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  By proving that a formula is valid by semantic arguments one usually means to prove that it is logically valid, that is that it is true in every possible interpretation.



                  So what you are asked is to prove that the formula
                  $$forall x (varphi to psi) to (forall x varphi to forall x psi)$$
                  is true in every interpretation.



                  In order to do that you have to use the basic definition of truth for a first-order formula.



                  I suggest you try to continue from here and in case you find any difficulty fell free to ask here for some hints.



                  I hope this helps.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  By proving that a formula is valid by semantic arguments one usually means to prove that it is logically valid, that is that it is true in every possible interpretation.



                  So what you are asked is to prove that the formula
                  $$forall x (varphi to psi) to (forall x varphi to forall x psi)$$
                  is true in every interpretation.



                  In order to do that you have to use the basic definition of truth for a first-order formula.



                  I suggest you try to continue from here and in case you find any difficulty fell free to ask here for some hints.



                  I hope this helps.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 18 at 16:04









                  Giorgio Mossa

                  13.7k11748




                  13.7k11748






























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