Rank of a linear operator.












0















Let $V$ be a vector space of dimension 3 and $T $ be a linear operator on $V $ such that $T^3=0 $ and $T^2 neq 0$. The question is to show the rank of $T=2$.




My attempt : As I had no other idea, I tried using proof by contradiction. I succeeded in showing that a rank of 0 or 3 will lead to a contradiction.



Now suppose rank($T$) = 1. Let ${v_1,v_2,v_3} $ be a basis of $V $ and WLOG assume ${v_1,v_2}$ spans the kernel of $T$ and $Tv_3$ spans the range of $T$. Then I can show that Range($T^2$) is spanned by $T^2(v_3)$ and rank($T^2$)= 1. I'm completely stuck after this. I'm not even sure this result has any importance. Any hint is appreciated. Thanks.










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  • Do you know the Jordan form? If so, what blocks are possible?
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 18 at 14:37










  • I haven't learnt about it. Sorry.
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 15:06






  • 1




    In your basis $v_i$, the matrix for $T$ is all zeros except a $1$ in the bottom-right corner. This matrix has the property that $T^2=T$, so you contradict that $T^3=0$, since we would also have $T^3=T^2=T$.
    – Nick
    Nov 18 at 15:52










  • @Nick Thank you. I didn't consider the matrix at all.
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 17:00
















0















Let $V$ be a vector space of dimension 3 and $T $ be a linear operator on $V $ such that $T^3=0 $ and $T^2 neq 0$. The question is to show the rank of $T=2$.




My attempt : As I had no other idea, I tried using proof by contradiction. I succeeded in showing that a rank of 0 or 3 will lead to a contradiction.



Now suppose rank($T$) = 1. Let ${v_1,v_2,v_3} $ be a basis of $V $ and WLOG assume ${v_1,v_2}$ spans the kernel of $T$ and $Tv_3$ spans the range of $T$. Then I can show that Range($T^2$) is spanned by $T^2(v_3)$ and rank($T^2$)= 1. I'm completely stuck after this. I'm not even sure this result has any importance. Any hint is appreciated. Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Do you know the Jordan form? If so, what blocks are possible?
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 18 at 14:37










  • I haven't learnt about it. Sorry.
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 15:06






  • 1




    In your basis $v_i$, the matrix for $T$ is all zeros except a $1$ in the bottom-right corner. This matrix has the property that $T^2=T$, so you contradict that $T^3=0$, since we would also have $T^3=T^2=T$.
    – Nick
    Nov 18 at 15:52










  • @Nick Thank you. I didn't consider the matrix at all.
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 17:00














0












0








0








Let $V$ be a vector space of dimension 3 and $T $ be a linear operator on $V $ such that $T^3=0 $ and $T^2 neq 0$. The question is to show the rank of $T=2$.




My attempt : As I had no other idea, I tried using proof by contradiction. I succeeded in showing that a rank of 0 or 3 will lead to a contradiction.



Now suppose rank($T$) = 1. Let ${v_1,v_2,v_3} $ be a basis of $V $ and WLOG assume ${v_1,v_2}$ spans the kernel of $T$ and $Tv_3$ spans the range of $T$. Then I can show that Range($T^2$) is spanned by $T^2(v_3)$ and rank($T^2$)= 1. I'm completely stuck after this. I'm not even sure this result has any importance. Any hint is appreciated. Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question
















Let $V$ be a vector space of dimension 3 and $T $ be a linear operator on $V $ such that $T^3=0 $ and $T^2 neq 0$. The question is to show the rank of $T=2$.




My attempt : As I had no other idea, I tried using proof by contradiction. I succeeded in showing that a rank of 0 or 3 will lead to a contradiction.



Now suppose rank($T$) = 1. Let ${v_1,v_2,v_3} $ be a basis of $V $ and WLOG assume ${v_1,v_2}$ spans the kernel of $T$ and $Tv_3$ spans the range of $T$. Then I can show that Range($T^2$) is spanned by $T^2(v_3)$ and rank($T^2$)= 1. I'm completely stuck after this. I'm not even sure this result has any importance. Any hint is appreciated. Thanks.







linear-algebra linear-transformations






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edited Nov 18 at 15:38

























asked Nov 18 at 14:29









Thomas Shelby

1,445216




1,445216












  • Do you know the Jordan form? If so, what blocks are possible?
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 18 at 14:37










  • I haven't learnt about it. Sorry.
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 15:06






  • 1




    In your basis $v_i$, the matrix for $T$ is all zeros except a $1$ in the bottom-right corner. This matrix has the property that $T^2=T$, so you contradict that $T^3=0$, since we would also have $T^3=T^2=T$.
    – Nick
    Nov 18 at 15:52










  • @Nick Thank you. I didn't consider the matrix at all.
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 17:00


















  • Do you know the Jordan form? If so, what blocks are possible?
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 18 at 14:37










  • I haven't learnt about it. Sorry.
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 15:06






  • 1




    In your basis $v_i$, the matrix for $T$ is all zeros except a $1$ in the bottom-right corner. This matrix has the property that $T^2=T$, so you contradict that $T^3=0$, since we would also have $T^3=T^2=T$.
    – Nick
    Nov 18 at 15:52










  • @Nick Thank you. I didn't consider the matrix at all.
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 17:00
















Do you know the Jordan form? If so, what blocks are possible?
– Michael Burr
Nov 18 at 14:37




Do you know the Jordan form? If so, what blocks are possible?
– Michael Burr
Nov 18 at 14:37












I haven't learnt about it. Sorry.
– Thomas Shelby
Nov 18 at 15:06




I haven't learnt about it. Sorry.
– Thomas Shelby
Nov 18 at 15:06




1




1




In your basis $v_i$, the matrix for $T$ is all zeros except a $1$ in the bottom-right corner. This matrix has the property that $T^2=T$, so you contradict that $T^3=0$, since we would also have $T^3=T^2=T$.
– Nick
Nov 18 at 15:52




In your basis $v_i$, the matrix for $T$ is all zeros except a $1$ in the bottom-right corner. This matrix has the property that $T^2=T$, so you contradict that $T^3=0$, since we would also have $T^3=T^2=T$.
– Nick
Nov 18 at 15:52












@Nick Thank you. I didn't consider the matrix at all.
– Thomas Shelby
Nov 18 at 17:00




@Nick Thank you. I didn't consider the matrix at all.
– Thomas Shelby
Nov 18 at 17:00










1 Answer
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Since we know that $T^3=0$, we know that the null space of $T^3$ contains the image of $T^2$. Since $T^2not=0$, we know that $operatorname{rank}(T^2)geq 1$. Since $T^2(v)=T(T(v))$, i.e., $T$ applied to some vector $T(v)$, we know that $operatorname{rank}(T^2)leqoperatorname{rank}(T)$. Therefore, the rank of $T$ is at least one (but you already knew that).



On the other hand, since $T^2not=0$, there is some vector $v$ so that $T^2(v)not=0$, but since $T^3(v)=T(T^2(v))=0$, it follows that there is some nonzero vector, i.e., $T^2(v)$ which is mapped to zero by $T$. This implies that the kernel of $T$ is at least $1$-dimensional. This implies, by the rank-nullity theorem that the rank of $T$ is at most $2$ (but you already knew that). If you don't know the rank-nullity theorem, keep a count of free and pivot variables and you'll get the same conclusions.



Now, suppose that the rank of $T$ is $1$. Then, since $T^2$ has rank $1$ as well, this implies that $T^2$ and $T$ have the same image. But, since $T$ applied to the image of $T^2$ is zero, then $T$ applied to the image of $T$ is also zero. But then, $T^2$ is zero, but this contradicts the assumptions.



This shows that the rank of $T$ must be $2$. To prove that this is even possible, an example would be
$$
begin{bmatrix}0&1&0\0&0&1\0&0&0end{bmatrix}.
$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your wonderful answer. But in the first paragraph, how did you conclude rank($T^2$) $leq$ rank($T$) ?
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 17:11








  • 1




    The rank is the dimension of the image. The image of $T^2$ is a subset of the image of $T$. This implies that the rank of $T^2$ is less than the rank of $T$.
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 18 at 18:49













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Since we know that $T^3=0$, we know that the null space of $T^3$ contains the image of $T^2$. Since $T^2not=0$, we know that $operatorname{rank}(T^2)geq 1$. Since $T^2(v)=T(T(v))$, i.e., $T$ applied to some vector $T(v)$, we know that $operatorname{rank}(T^2)leqoperatorname{rank}(T)$. Therefore, the rank of $T$ is at least one (but you already knew that).



On the other hand, since $T^2not=0$, there is some vector $v$ so that $T^2(v)not=0$, but since $T^3(v)=T(T^2(v))=0$, it follows that there is some nonzero vector, i.e., $T^2(v)$ which is mapped to zero by $T$. This implies that the kernel of $T$ is at least $1$-dimensional. This implies, by the rank-nullity theorem that the rank of $T$ is at most $2$ (but you already knew that). If you don't know the rank-nullity theorem, keep a count of free and pivot variables and you'll get the same conclusions.



Now, suppose that the rank of $T$ is $1$. Then, since $T^2$ has rank $1$ as well, this implies that $T^2$ and $T$ have the same image. But, since $T$ applied to the image of $T^2$ is zero, then $T$ applied to the image of $T$ is also zero. But then, $T^2$ is zero, but this contradicts the assumptions.



This shows that the rank of $T$ must be $2$. To prove that this is even possible, an example would be
$$
begin{bmatrix}0&1&0\0&0&1\0&0&0end{bmatrix}.
$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your wonderful answer. But in the first paragraph, how did you conclude rank($T^2$) $leq$ rank($T$) ?
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 17:11








  • 1




    The rank is the dimension of the image. The image of $T^2$ is a subset of the image of $T$. This implies that the rank of $T^2$ is less than the rank of $T$.
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 18 at 18:49


















1














Since we know that $T^3=0$, we know that the null space of $T^3$ contains the image of $T^2$. Since $T^2not=0$, we know that $operatorname{rank}(T^2)geq 1$. Since $T^2(v)=T(T(v))$, i.e., $T$ applied to some vector $T(v)$, we know that $operatorname{rank}(T^2)leqoperatorname{rank}(T)$. Therefore, the rank of $T$ is at least one (but you already knew that).



On the other hand, since $T^2not=0$, there is some vector $v$ so that $T^2(v)not=0$, but since $T^3(v)=T(T^2(v))=0$, it follows that there is some nonzero vector, i.e., $T^2(v)$ which is mapped to zero by $T$. This implies that the kernel of $T$ is at least $1$-dimensional. This implies, by the rank-nullity theorem that the rank of $T$ is at most $2$ (but you already knew that). If you don't know the rank-nullity theorem, keep a count of free and pivot variables and you'll get the same conclusions.



Now, suppose that the rank of $T$ is $1$. Then, since $T^2$ has rank $1$ as well, this implies that $T^2$ and $T$ have the same image. But, since $T$ applied to the image of $T^2$ is zero, then $T$ applied to the image of $T$ is also zero. But then, $T^2$ is zero, but this contradicts the assumptions.



This shows that the rank of $T$ must be $2$. To prove that this is even possible, an example would be
$$
begin{bmatrix}0&1&0\0&0&1\0&0&0end{bmatrix}.
$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your wonderful answer. But in the first paragraph, how did you conclude rank($T^2$) $leq$ rank($T$) ?
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 17:11








  • 1




    The rank is the dimension of the image. The image of $T^2$ is a subset of the image of $T$. This implies that the rank of $T^2$ is less than the rank of $T$.
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 18 at 18:49
















1












1








1






Since we know that $T^3=0$, we know that the null space of $T^3$ contains the image of $T^2$. Since $T^2not=0$, we know that $operatorname{rank}(T^2)geq 1$. Since $T^2(v)=T(T(v))$, i.e., $T$ applied to some vector $T(v)$, we know that $operatorname{rank}(T^2)leqoperatorname{rank}(T)$. Therefore, the rank of $T$ is at least one (but you already knew that).



On the other hand, since $T^2not=0$, there is some vector $v$ so that $T^2(v)not=0$, but since $T^3(v)=T(T^2(v))=0$, it follows that there is some nonzero vector, i.e., $T^2(v)$ which is mapped to zero by $T$. This implies that the kernel of $T$ is at least $1$-dimensional. This implies, by the rank-nullity theorem that the rank of $T$ is at most $2$ (but you already knew that). If you don't know the rank-nullity theorem, keep a count of free and pivot variables and you'll get the same conclusions.



Now, suppose that the rank of $T$ is $1$. Then, since $T^2$ has rank $1$ as well, this implies that $T^2$ and $T$ have the same image. But, since $T$ applied to the image of $T^2$ is zero, then $T$ applied to the image of $T$ is also zero. But then, $T^2$ is zero, but this contradicts the assumptions.



This shows that the rank of $T$ must be $2$. To prove that this is even possible, an example would be
$$
begin{bmatrix}0&1&0\0&0&1\0&0&0end{bmatrix}.
$$






share|cite|improve this answer












Since we know that $T^3=0$, we know that the null space of $T^3$ contains the image of $T^2$. Since $T^2not=0$, we know that $operatorname{rank}(T^2)geq 1$. Since $T^2(v)=T(T(v))$, i.e., $T$ applied to some vector $T(v)$, we know that $operatorname{rank}(T^2)leqoperatorname{rank}(T)$. Therefore, the rank of $T$ is at least one (but you already knew that).



On the other hand, since $T^2not=0$, there is some vector $v$ so that $T^2(v)not=0$, but since $T^3(v)=T(T^2(v))=0$, it follows that there is some nonzero vector, i.e., $T^2(v)$ which is mapped to zero by $T$. This implies that the kernel of $T$ is at least $1$-dimensional. This implies, by the rank-nullity theorem that the rank of $T$ is at most $2$ (but you already knew that). If you don't know the rank-nullity theorem, keep a count of free and pivot variables and you'll get the same conclusions.



Now, suppose that the rank of $T$ is $1$. Then, since $T^2$ has rank $1$ as well, this implies that $T^2$ and $T$ have the same image. But, since $T$ applied to the image of $T^2$ is zero, then $T$ applied to the image of $T$ is also zero. But then, $T^2$ is zero, but this contradicts the assumptions.



This shows that the rank of $T$ must be $2$. To prove that this is even possible, an example would be
$$
begin{bmatrix}0&1&0\0&0&1\0&0&0end{bmatrix}.
$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 18 at 17:02









Michael Burr

26.5k23262




26.5k23262












  • Thank you for your wonderful answer. But in the first paragraph, how did you conclude rank($T^2$) $leq$ rank($T$) ?
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 17:11








  • 1




    The rank is the dimension of the image. The image of $T^2$ is a subset of the image of $T$. This implies that the rank of $T^2$ is less than the rank of $T$.
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 18 at 18:49




















  • Thank you for your wonderful answer. But in the first paragraph, how did you conclude rank($T^2$) $leq$ rank($T$) ?
    – Thomas Shelby
    Nov 18 at 17:11








  • 1




    The rank is the dimension of the image. The image of $T^2$ is a subset of the image of $T$. This implies that the rank of $T^2$ is less than the rank of $T$.
    – Michael Burr
    Nov 18 at 18:49


















Thank you for your wonderful answer. But in the first paragraph, how did you conclude rank($T^2$) $leq$ rank($T$) ?
– Thomas Shelby
Nov 18 at 17:11






Thank you for your wonderful answer. But in the first paragraph, how did you conclude rank($T^2$) $leq$ rank($T$) ?
– Thomas Shelby
Nov 18 at 17:11






1




1




The rank is the dimension of the image. The image of $T^2$ is a subset of the image of $T$. This implies that the rank of $T^2$ is less than the rank of $T$.
– Michael Burr
Nov 18 at 18:49






The rank is the dimension of the image. The image of $T^2$ is a subset of the image of $T$. This implies that the rank of $T^2$ is less than the rank of $T$.
– Michael Burr
Nov 18 at 18:49




















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