Solvable group $G$ isn't a cyclic $p$-group











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Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite solvable group. We want to show that $G$ has proper subgroups like $A$ and $B$ such that $G=AB$ iff $G$ isn't a cyclic $p$-group.



I use the below fact to solve the problem.



" Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite group. $G$ has one and only one maximal subgroup iff $G$ be a cyclic group of order $p^{m}$ such that $p$ is a prime number. "



I can solve one side but I have problem on the other side.



I suppose that $G$ isn't a cyclic $p$-group. Therefore $G$ has more than one maximal subgroup. Let $M$ and $N$ be maximal subgroups of $G$ such that $M neq N$. I want to show $G = MN $ but I don't know how.










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    $MN$ is a subgroup of $G$ and contains both $M$ and $N$. Does that help?
    – user3482749
    Nov 15 at 16:21










  • @user3482749Why $MN$ is a subgroup?If so, yes, we have $ M lneqq MN leq G $ and as $M$ is a maximal subgroup of $G$, we have $G=MN$.
    – Yasmin
    Nov 15 at 16:43












  • The result is false when $G = C_{p^infty}$, which is an infinite abelian group in which all proper subgroups are finite. And your fact is wrong when $G = C_{p^infty} times C_p$, which has the unique maximal subgroup $C_{p^inf ty}$.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 15 at 21:13








  • 1




    Your original version said nothing about finiteness, so why would you expect anyone to think that you were talking about finite groups?
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 16 at 8:05






  • 1




    Anyway, you can solve your problem by taking $M$ to be a normal subgroup of prime index, and then $MN$ is a subgroup.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 16 at 8:05















up vote
-1
down vote

favorite
1












Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite solvable group. We want to show that $G$ has proper subgroups like $A$ and $B$ such that $G=AB$ iff $G$ isn't a cyclic $p$-group.



I use the below fact to solve the problem.



" Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite group. $G$ has one and only one maximal subgroup iff $G$ be a cyclic group of order $p^{m}$ such that $p$ is a prime number. "



I can solve one side but I have problem on the other side.



I suppose that $G$ isn't a cyclic $p$-group. Therefore $G$ has more than one maximal subgroup. Let $M$ and $N$ be maximal subgroups of $G$ such that $M neq N$. I want to show $G = MN $ but I don't know how.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    $MN$ is a subgroup of $G$ and contains both $M$ and $N$. Does that help?
    – user3482749
    Nov 15 at 16:21










  • @user3482749Why $MN$ is a subgroup?If so, yes, we have $ M lneqq MN leq G $ and as $M$ is a maximal subgroup of $G$, we have $G=MN$.
    – Yasmin
    Nov 15 at 16:43












  • The result is false when $G = C_{p^infty}$, which is an infinite abelian group in which all proper subgroups are finite. And your fact is wrong when $G = C_{p^infty} times C_p$, which has the unique maximal subgroup $C_{p^inf ty}$.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 15 at 21:13








  • 1




    Your original version said nothing about finiteness, so why would you expect anyone to think that you were talking about finite groups?
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 16 at 8:05






  • 1




    Anyway, you can solve your problem by taking $M$ to be a normal subgroup of prime index, and then $MN$ is a subgroup.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 16 at 8:05













up vote
-1
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
-1
down vote

favorite
1






1





Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite solvable group. We want to show that $G$ has proper subgroups like $A$ and $B$ such that $G=AB$ iff $G$ isn't a cyclic $p$-group.



I use the below fact to solve the problem.



" Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite group. $G$ has one and only one maximal subgroup iff $G$ be a cyclic group of order $p^{m}$ such that $p$ is a prime number. "



I can solve one side but I have problem on the other side.



I suppose that $G$ isn't a cyclic $p$-group. Therefore $G$ has more than one maximal subgroup. Let $M$ and $N$ be maximal subgroups of $G$ such that $M neq N$. I want to show $G = MN $ but I don't know how.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite solvable group. We want to show that $G$ has proper subgroups like $A$ and $B$ such that $G=AB$ iff $G$ isn't a cyclic $p$-group.



I use the below fact to solve the problem.



" Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite group. $G$ has one and only one maximal subgroup iff $G$ be a cyclic group of order $p^{m}$ such that $p$ is a prime number. "



I can solve one side but I have problem on the other side.



I suppose that $G$ isn't a cyclic $p$-group. Therefore $G$ has more than one maximal subgroup. Let $M$ and $N$ be maximal subgroups of $G$ such that $M neq N$. I want to show $G = MN $ but I don't know how.







group-theory finite-groups p-groups solvable-groups






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 16 at 6:12

























asked Nov 15 at 16:19









Yasmin

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10310








  • 1




    $MN$ is a subgroup of $G$ and contains both $M$ and $N$. Does that help?
    – user3482749
    Nov 15 at 16:21










  • @user3482749Why $MN$ is a subgroup?If so, yes, we have $ M lneqq MN leq G $ and as $M$ is a maximal subgroup of $G$, we have $G=MN$.
    – Yasmin
    Nov 15 at 16:43












  • The result is false when $G = C_{p^infty}$, which is an infinite abelian group in which all proper subgroups are finite. And your fact is wrong when $G = C_{p^infty} times C_p$, which has the unique maximal subgroup $C_{p^inf ty}$.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 15 at 21:13








  • 1




    Your original version said nothing about finiteness, so why would you expect anyone to think that you were talking about finite groups?
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 16 at 8:05






  • 1




    Anyway, you can solve your problem by taking $M$ to be a normal subgroup of prime index, and then $MN$ is a subgroup.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 16 at 8:05














  • 1




    $MN$ is a subgroup of $G$ and contains both $M$ and $N$. Does that help?
    – user3482749
    Nov 15 at 16:21










  • @user3482749Why $MN$ is a subgroup?If so, yes, we have $ M lneqq MN leq G $ and as $M$ is a maximal subgroup of $G$, we have $G=MN$.
    – Yasmin
    Nov 15 at 16:43












  • The result is false when $G = C_{p^infty}$, which is an infinite abelian group in which all proper subgroups are finite. And your fact is wrong when $G = C_{p^infty} times C_p$, which has the unique maximal subgroup $C_{p^inf ty}$.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 15 at 21:13








  • 1




    Your original version said nothing about finiteness, so why would you expect anyone to think that you were talking about finite groups?
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 16 at 8:05






  • 1




    Anyway, you can solve your problem by taking $M$ to be a normal subgroup of prime index, and then $MN$ is a subgroup.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 16 at 8:05








1




1




$MN$ is a subgroup of $G$ and contains both $M$ and $N$. Does that help?
– user3482749
Nov 15 at 16:21




$MN$ is a subgroup of $G$ and contains both $M$ and $N$. Does that help?
– user3482749
Nov 15 at 16:21












@user3482749Why $MN$ is a subgroup?If so, yes, we have $ M lneqq MN leq G $ and as $M$ is a maximal subgroup of $G$, we have $G=MN$.
– Yasmin
Nov 15 at 16:43






@user3482749Why $MN$ is a subgroup?If so, yes, we have $ M lneqq MN leq G $ and as $M$ is a maximal subgroup of $G$, we have $G=MN$.
– Yasmin
Nov 15 at 16:43














The result is false when $G = C_{p^infty}$, which is an infinite abelian group in which all proper subgroups are finite. And your fact is wrong when $G = C_{p^infty} times C_p$, which has the unique maximal subgroup $C_{p^inf ty}$.
– Derek Holt
Nov 15 at 21:13






The result is false when $G = C_{p^infty}$, which is an infinite abelian group in which all proper subgroups are finite. And your fact is wrong when $G = C_{p^infty} times C_p$, which has the unique maximal subgroup $C_{p^inf ty}$.
– Derek Holt
Nov 15 at 21:13






1




1




Your original version said nothing about finiteness, so why would you expect anyone to think that you were talking about finite groups?
– Derek Holt
Nov 16 at 8:05




Your original version said nothing about finiteness, so why would you expect anyone to think that you were talking about finite groups?
– Derek Holt
Nov 16 at 8:05




1




1




Anyway, you can solve your problem by taking $M$ to be a normal subgroup of prime index, and then $MN$ is a subgroup.
– Derek Holt
Nov 16 at 8:05




Anyway, you can solve your problem by taking $M$ to be a normal subgroup of prime index, and then $MN$ is a subgroup.
– Derek Holt
Nov 16 at 8:05















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