Can it be shown that $p(AB|C)=p(A|C)p(B|C)$ if $A$ and $B$ are independent events











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It seems intuitive to me that $p(AB|C)=p(A|C)p(B|C)$ if $A$ and $B$ are independent events, but i cannot prove it. I have tried proving this using $p(AB)=p(A)p(B)$, Bayes' theorem and the definition of conditional probability, but to no avail. Can someone provide a proof or at least give me some directions on how to prove it (if it is true)? My interest in this is out of sheer curiosity.










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    It seems intuitive to me that $p(AB|C)=p(A|C)p(B|C)$ if $A$ and $B$ are independent events, but i cannot prove it. I have tried proving this using $p(AB)=p(A)p(B)$, Bayes' theorem and the definition of conditional probability, but to no avail. Can someone provide a proof or at least give me some directions on how to prove it (if it is true)? My interest in this is out of sheer curiosity.










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      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      It seems intuitive to me that $p(AB|C)=p(A|C)p(B|C)$ if $A$ and $B$ are independent events, but i cannot prove it. I have tried proving this using $p(AB)=p(A)p(B)$, Bayes' theorem and the definition of conditional probability, but to no avail. Can someone provide a proof or at least give me some directions on how to prove it (if it is true)? My interest in this is out of sheer curiosity.










      share|cite|improve this question













      It seems intuitive to me that $p(AB|C)=p(A|C)p(B|C)$ if $A$ and $B$ are independent events, but i cannot prove it. I have tried proving this using $p(AB)=p(A)p(B)$, Bayes' theorem and the definition of conditional probability, but to no avail. Can someone provide a proof or at least give me some directions on how to prove it (if it is true)? My interest in this is out of sheer curiosity.







      probability independence conditional-probability






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      asked Nov 17 at 11:14









      Haris Gusic

      132




      132






















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          People often imagine this to be true but, alas, it is not. Here is a simple counterexample:



          Suppose you toss a fair penny and a fair dime. Let $A$ be the event "the penny comes up $H$". Let $B$ be the event "the dime comes up $H$.". Let $C$ be the event "the two coins match".



          Clearly, $A,B$ are independent.



          However, they are not independent conditioned on $C$.



          Indeed $$P(Acap B,|,C)=frac 12$$ but $$P(A,|,C)=frac 12=P(B,|,C)$$






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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            People often imagine this to be true but, alas, it is not. Here is a simple counterexample:



            Suppose you toss a fair penny and a fair dime. Let $A$ be the event "the penny comes up $H$". Let $B$ be the event "the dime comes up $H$.". Let $C$ be the event "the two coins match".



            Clearly, $A,B$ are independent.



            However, they are not independent conditioned on $C$.



            Indeed $$P(Acap B,|,C)=frac 12$$ but $$P(A,|,C)=frac 12=P(B,|,C)$$






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              People often imagine this to be true but, alas, it is not. Here is a simple counterexample:



              Suppose you toss a fair penny and a fair dime. Let $A$ be the event "the penny comes up $H$". Let $B$ be the event "the dime comes up $H$.". Let $C$ be the event "the two coins match".



              Clearly, $A,B$ are independent.



              However, they are not independent conditioned on $C$.



              Indeed $$P(Acap B,|,C)=frac 12$$ but $$P(A,|,C)=frac 12=P(B,|,C)$$






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted






                People often imagine this to be true but, alas, it is not. Here is a simple counterexample:



                Suppose you toss a fair penny and a fair dime. Let $A$ be the event "the penny comes up $H$". Let $B$ be the event "the dime comes up $H$.". Let $C$ be the event "the two coins match".



                Clearly, $A,B$ are independent.



                However, they are not independent conditioned on $C$.



                Indeed $$P(Acap B,|,C)=frac 12$$ but $$P(A,|,C)=frac 12=P(B,|,C)$$






                share|cite|improve this answer














                People often imagine this to be true but, alas, it is not. Here is a simple counterexample:



                Suppose you toss a fair penny and a fair dime. Let $A$ be the event "the penny comes up $H$". Let $B$ be the event "the dime comes up $H$.". Let $C$ be the event "the two coins match".



                Clearly, $A,B$ are independent.



                However, they are not independent conditioned on $C$.



                Indeed $$P(Acap B,|,C)=frac 12$$ but $$P(A,|,C)=frac 12=P(B,|,C)$$







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Nov 17 at 11:26

























                answered Nov 17 at 11:19









                lulu

                38.2k24476




                38.2k24476






























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