Lebesgue measure: $limlimits_{n to infty} n cdot m(S_n)=0$ where $S_n={x in E mid |f(x)|geq n} $











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Im looking to show that if $f$ is a Lebesgue integrable function on $E$ and if $$S_n={x in E mid |f(x)|geq n} $$ Then $$lim_{n to infty} n cdot m(S_n)=0 $$



We proved the Dominated convergence theorem, continuity from above, continuity from below, and a few other basic theorems from measure theory and Lebesgue theory. I'm not sure how to approach this type of problem since its not clear to be why this is important or how it relates to these topics.










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  • Searching in Approach0 gives a few questions which seem similar: Lebesgue integrable function and limit: $lim_{ntoinfty} ncdot m(A_n)=0$ or Evaluate the limit of $lim_{n to infty}n.mu(X_n)$.
    – Martin Sleziak
    Nov 27 at 12:27















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Im looking to show that if $f$ is a Lebesgue integrable function on $E$ and if $$S_n={x in E mid |f(x)|geq n} $$ Then $$lim_{n to infty} n cdot m(S_n)=0 $$



We proved the Dominated convergence theorem, continuity from above, continuity from below, and a few other basic theorems from measure theory and Lebesgue theory. I'm not sure how to approach this type of problem since its not clear to be why this is important or how it relates to these topics.










share|cite|improve this question









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Scott Payne is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • Searching in Approach0 gives a few questions which seem similar: Lebesgue integrable function and limit: $lim_{ntoinfty} ncdot m(A_n)=0$ or Evaluate the limit of $lim_{n to infty}n.mu(X_n)$.
    – Martin Sleziak
    Nov 27 at 12:27













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Im looking to show that if $f$ is a Lebesgue integrable function on $E$ and if $$S_n={x in E mid |f(x)|geq n} $$ Then $$lim_{n to infty} n cdot m(S_n)=0 $$



We proved the Dominated convergence theorem, continuity from above, continuity from below, and a few other basic theorems from measure theory and Lebesgue theory. I'm not sure how to approach this type of problem since its not clear to be why this is important or how it relates to these topics.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Scott Payne is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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Im looking to show that if $f$ is a Lebesgue integrable function on $E$ and if $$S_n={x in E mid |f(x)|geq n} $$ Then $$lim_{n to infty} n cdot m(S_n)=0 $$



We proved the Dominated convergence theorem, continuity from above, continuity from below, and a few other basic theorems from measure theory and Lebesgue theory. I'm not sure how to approach this type of problem since its not clear to be why this is important or how it relates to these topics.







measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure






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edited Nov 27 at 12:25









Martin Sleziak

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asked Nov 27 at 6:04









Scott Payne

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  • Searching in Approach0 gives a few questions which seem similar: Lebesgue integrable function and limit: $lim_{ntoinfty} ncdot m(A_n)=0$ or Evaluate the limit of $lim_{n to infty}n.mu(X_n)$.
    – Martin Sleziak
    Nov 27 at 12:27


















  • Searching in Approach0 gives a few questions which seem similar: Lebesgue integrable function and limit: $lim_{ntoinfty} ncdot m(A_n)=0$ or Evaluate the limit of $lim_{n to infty}n.mu(X_n)$.
    – Martin Sleziak
    Nov 27 at 12:27
















Searching in Approach0 gives a few questions which seem similar: Lebesgue integrable function and limit: $lim_{ntoinfty} ncdot m(A_n)=0$ or Evaluate the limit of $lim_{n to infty}n.mu(X_n)$.
– Martin Sleziak
Nov 27 at 12:27




Searching in Approach0 gives a few questions which seem similar: Lebesgue integrable function and limit: $lim_{ntoinfty} ncdot m(A_n)=0$ or Evaluate the limit of $lim_{n to infty}n.mu(X_n)$.
– Martin Sleziak
Nov 27 at 12:27










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










Observe that
$$begin{aligned}
int_E |f| &= int_{S_n} |f| + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
&geq int_{S_n} n + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
&= ncdot m(S_n) + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
end{aligned}$$

As $int_E |f|$ is finite, so is $int_{E setminus S_n} |f|$, so we can subtract the latter from both sides to obtain
$$begin{aligned}
ncdot m(S_n) &leq int_E |f| - int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
&= int_{S_n} |f| \
&= int_E |f| chi_{S_n} \
end{aligned}$$

where $chi_{S_n}$ is the characteristic function of $S_n$. The integrand on the RHS is dominated by the integrable function $|f|$ and converges a.e. to zero, hence by the dominated convergence theorem we have
$$begin{aligned}
lim_{n to infty}ncdot m(S_n) &leq lim_{n to infty}int_E |f| chi_{S_n} \
&= int_E lim_{n to infty} |f| chi_{S_n} \
&= 0
end{aligned}$$

As the LHS is nonnegative, this gives us the desired result.






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    up vote
    3
    down vote













    Note that $n.m(S_n)=int_{S_n}nleqint_{S_n}|f|$ for every $n$ and $lim_{nto+infty}int_{S_n}|f|=0$ because $f$ is integrable. So the proposition follows.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • What theorem do we need to know to show that $lim_{n to infty} int_{S_n} |f|=0$? Is this because the measure of the $S_n$ is going to zero?
      – Scott Payne
      Nov 27 at 6:18








    • 1




      Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence Theorem: Note that $int_{S_n}|f|=int_E|f|chi_{S_n}$, $|f|chi_{S_n}$ converges to $0$ a.e. and it is dominated by $|f|$, which is integrable by hypothesis.
      – Dante Grevino
      Nov 27 at 6:21











    Your Answer





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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted










    Observe that
    $$begin{aligned}
    int_E |f| &= int_{S_n} |f| + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
    &geq int_{S_n} n + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
    &= ncdot m(S_n) + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
    end{aligned}$$

    As $int_E |f|$ is finite, so is $int_{E setminus S_n} |f|$, so we can subtract the latter from both sides to obtain
    $$begin{aligned}
    ncdot m(S_n) &leq int_E |f| - int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
    &= int_{S_n} |f| \
    &= int_E |f| chi_{S_n} \
    end{aligned}$$

    where $chi_{S_n}$ is the characteristic function of $S_n$. The integrand on the RHS is dominated by the integrable function $|f|$ and converges a.e. to zero, hence by the dominated convergence theorem we have
    $$begin{aligned}
    lim_{n to infty}ncdot m(S_n) &leq lim_{n to infty}int_E |f| chi_{S_n} \
    &= int_E lim_{n to infty} |f| chi_{S_n} \
    &= 0
    end{aligned}$$

    As the LHS is nonnegative, this gives us the desired result.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      Observe that
      $$begin{aligned}
      int_E |f| &= int_{S_n} |f| + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
      &geq int_{S_n} n + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
      &= ncdot m(S_n) + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
      end{aligned}$$

      As $int_E |f|$ is finite, so is $int_{E setminus S_n} |f|$, so we can subtract the latter from both sides to obtain
      $$begin{aligned}
      ncdot m(S_n) &leq int_E |f| - int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
      &= int_{S_n} |f| \
      &= int_E |f| chi_{S_n} \
      end{aligned}$$

      where $chi_{S_n}$ is the characteristic function of $S_n$. The integrand on the RHS is dominated by the integrable function $|f|$ and converges a.e. to zero, hence by the dominated convergence theorem we have
      $$begin{aligned}
      lim_{n to infty}ncdot m(S_n) &leq lim_{n to infty}int_E |f| chi_{S_n} \
      &= int_E lim_{n to infty} |f| chi_{S_n} \
      &= 0
      end{aligned}$$

      As the LHS is nonnegative, this gives us the desired result.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted






        Observe that
        $$begin{aligned}
        int_E |f| &= int_{S_n} |f| + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
        &geq int_{S_n} n + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
        &= ncdot m(S_n) + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
        end{aligned}$$

        As $int_E |f|$ is finite, so is $int_{E setminus S_n} |f|$, so we can subtract the latter from both sides to obtain
        $$begin{aligned}
        ncdot m(S_n) &leq int_E |f| - int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
        &= int_{S_n} |f| \
        &= int_E |f| chi_{S_n} \
        end{aligned}$$

        where $chi_{S_n}$ is the characteristic function of $S_n$. The integrand on the RHS is dominated by the integrable function $|f|$ and converges a.e. to zero, hence by the dominated convergence theorem we have
        $$begin{aligned}
        lim_{n to infty}ncdot m(S_n) &leq lim_{n to infty}int_E |f| chi_{S_n} \
        &= int_E lim_{n to infty} |f| chi_{S_n} \
        &= 0
        end{aligned}$$

        As the LHS is nonnegative, this gives us the desired result.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Observe that
        $$begin{aligned}
        int_E |f| &= int_{S_n} |f| + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
        &geq int_{S_n} n + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
        &= ncdot m(S_n) + int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
        end{aligned}$$

        As $int_E |f|$ is finite, so is $int_{E setminus S_n} |f|$, so we can subtract the latter from both sides to obtain
        $$begin{aligned}
        ncdot m(S_n) &leq int_E |f| - int_{E setminus S_n} |f| \
        &= int_{S_n} |f| \
        &= int_E |f| chi_{S_n} \
        end{aligned}$$

        where $chi_{S_n}$ is the characteristic function of $S_n$. The integrand on the RHS is dominated by the integrable function $|f|$ and converges a.e. to zero, hence by the dominated convergence theorem we have
        $$begin{aligned}
        lim_{n to infty}ncdot m(S_n) &leq lim_{n to infty}int_E |f| chi_{S_n} \
        &= int_E lim_{n to infty} |f| chi_{S_n} \
        &= 0
        end{aligned}$$

        As the LHS is nonnegative, this gives us the desired result.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 27 at 6:16









        Bungo

        13.6k22147




        13.6k22147






















            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Note that $n.m(S_n)=int_{S_n}nleqint_{S_n}|f|$ for every $n$ and $lim_{nto+infty}int_{S_n}|f|=0$ because $f$ is integrable. So the proposition follows.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • What theorem do we need to know to show that $lim_{n to infty} int_{S_n} |f|=0$? Is this because the measure of the $S_n$ is going to zero?
              – Scott Payne
              Nov 27 at 6:18








            • 1




              Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence Theorem: Note that $int_{S_n}|f|=int_E|f|chi_{S_n}$, $|f|chi_{S_n}$ converges to $0$ a.e. and it is dominated by $|f|$, which is integrable by hypothesis.
              – Dante Grevino
              Nov 27 at 6:21















            up vote
            3
            down vote













            Note that $n.m(S_n)=int_{S_n}nleqint_{S_n}|f|$ for every $n$ and $lim_{nto+infty}int_{S_n}|f|=0$ because $f$ is integrable. So the proposition follows.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • What theorem do we need to know to show that $lim_{n to infty} int_{S_n} |f|=0$? Is this because the measure of the $S_n$ is going to zero?
              – Scott Payne
              Nov 27 at 6:18








            • 1




              Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence Theorem: Note that $int_{S_n}|f|=int_E|f|chi_{S_n}$, $|f|chi_{S_n}$ converges to $0$ a.e. and it is dominated by $|f|$, which is integrable by hypothesis.
              – Dante Grevino
              Nov 27 at 6:21













            up vote
            3
            down vote










            up vote
            3
            down vote









            Note that $n.m(S_n)=int_{S_n}nleqint_{S_n}|f|$ for every $n$ and $lim_{nto+infty}int_{S_n}|f|=0$ because $f$ is integrable. So the proposition follows.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Note that $n.m(S_n)=int_{S_n}nleqint_{S_n}|f|$ for every $n$ and $lim_{nto+infty}int_{S_n}|f|=0$ because $f$ is integrable. So the proposition follows.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 27 at 6:12









            Dante Grevino

            7367




            7367












            • What theorem do we need to know to show that $lim_{n to infty} int_{S_n} |f|=0$? Is this because the measure of the $S_n$ is going to zero?
              – Scott Payne
              Nov 27 at 6:18








            • 1




              Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence Theorem: Note that $int_{S_n}|f|=int_E|f|chi_{S_n}$, $|f|chi_{S_n}$ converges to $0$ a.e. and it is dominated by $|f|$, which is integrable by hypothesis.
              – Dante Grevino
              Nov 27 at 6:21


















            • What theorem do we need to know to show that $lim_{n to infty} int_{S_n} |f|=0$? Is this because the measure of the $S_n$ is going to zero?
              – Scott Payne
              Nov 27 at 6:18








            • 1




              Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence Theorem: Note that $int_{S_n}|f|=int_E|f|chi_{S_n}$, $|f|chi_{S_n}$ converges to $0$ a.e. and it is dominated by $|f|$, which is integrable by hypothesis.
              – Dante Grevino
              Nov 27 at 6:21
















            What theorem do we need to know to show that $lim_{n to infty} int_{S_n} |f|=0$? Is this because the measure of the $S_n$ is going to zero?
            – Scott Payne
            Nov 27 at 6:18






            What theorem do we need to know to show that $lim_{n to infty} int_{S_n} |f|=0$? Is this because the measure of the $S_n$ is going to zero?
            – Scott Payne
            Nov 27 at 6:18






            1




            1




            Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence Theorem: Note that $int_{S_n}|f|=int_E|f|chi_{S_n}$, $|f|chi_{S_n}$ converges to $0$ a.e. and it is dominated by $|f|$, which is integrable by hypothesis.
            – Dante Grevino
            Nov 27 at 6:21




            Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence Theorem: Note that $int_{S_n}|f|=int_E|f|chi_{S_n}$, $|f|chi_{S_n}$ converges to $0$ a.e. and it is dominated by $|f|$, which is integrable by hypothesis.
            – Dante Grevino
            Nov 27 at 6:21










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