$mathbb{C}$-valued points and flatness











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Let $X$ be an integral scheme over $mathrm{Spec}(mathbb{Z})$, we denote $X(mathbb{C})$ as the set of $mathbb{C}$-valued points in $X$. Then $Yrightarrow mathrm{Spec}(mathbb{Z})$ is flat if $Y(mathbb{C})not=emptyset$.



Can anyone show me how to prove this?










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    Let $X$ be an integral scheme over $mathrm{Spec}(mathbb{Z})$, we denote $X(mathbb{C})$ as the set of $mathbb{C}$-valued points in $X$. Then $Yrightarrow mathrm{Spec}(mathbb{Z})$ is flat if $Y(mathbb{C})not=emptyset$.



    Can anyone show me how to prove this?










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      Let $X$ be an integral scheme over $mathrm{Spec}(mathbb{Z})$, we denote $X(mathbb{C})$ as the set of $mathbb{C}$-valued points in $X$. Then $Yrightarrow mathrm{Spec}(mathbb{Z})$ is flat if $Y(mathbb{C})not=emptyset$.



      Can anyone show me how to prove this?










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $X$ be an integral scheme over $mathrm{Spec}(mathbb{Z})$, we denote $X(mathbb{C})$ as the set of $mathbb{C}$-valued points in $X$. Then $Yrightarrow mathrm{Spec}(mathbb{Z})$ is flat if $Y(mathbb{C})not=emptyset$.



      Can anyone show me how to prove this?







      algebraic-geometry arithmetic-geometry






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      asked Nov 17 at 12:23









      Intoks Liobein

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      41328






















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          Since $mathbb{Z}$ is a pid, flatness is same as torsion free. Since $Y$ is an integral scheme, torsion free just means the map is dominant. Dominance is equivalent to to $Y(mathbb{C})neqemptyset$.



          This is just to answer the query by the OP in the comments. $f:Ytomathbb{Z}$ is dominant means the generic point is in the image. That is, there exists a morphism $mathrm{Spec}, Kto Y$ which when composed with $f$ factors through the generic point $mathrm{Spec},mathbb{Q}subsetmathrm{Spec},mathbb{Z}$. Base changing to $mathrm{Spec},mathbb{C}to mathrm{Spec},mathbb{Q}$, we get a morphism $mathrm{Spec},(Kotimes_{mathbb{Q}}mathbb{C})to Ytimes_{mathbb{Z}}mathrm{Spec}, mathbb{C}$. Hope rest is clear.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • always so prompt and excellent answer
            – Intoks Liobein
            Nov 17 at 15:11










          • Can you explain a little bit for your very last step?
            – Intoks Liobein
            Nov 21 at 0:50











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          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          Since $mathbb{Z}$ is a pid, flatness is same as torsion free. Since $Y$ is an integral scheme, torsion free just means the map is dominant. Dominance is equivalent to to $Y(mathbb{C})neqemptyset$.



          This is just to answer the query by the OP in the comments. $f:Ytomathbb{Z}$ is dominant means the generic point is in the image. That is, there exists a morphism $mathrm{Spec}, Kto Y$ which when composed with $f$ factors through the generic point $mathrm{Spec},mathbb{Q}subsetmathrm{Spec},mathbb{Z}$. Base changing to $mathrm{Spec},mathbb{C}to mathrm{Spec},mathbb{Q}$, we get a morphism $mathrm{Spec},(Kotimes_{mathbb{Q}}mathbb{C})to Ytimes_{mathbb{Z}}mathrm{Spec}, mathbb{C}$. Hope rest is clear.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • always so prompt and excellent answer
            – Intoks Liobein
            Nov 17 at 15:11










          • Can you explain a little bit for your very last step?
            – Intoks Liobein
            Nov 21 at 0:50















          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          Since $mathbb{Z}$ is a pid, flatness is same as torsion free. Since $Y$ is an integral scheme, torsion free just means the map is dominant. Dominance is equivalent to to $Y(mathbb{C})neqemptyset$.



          This is just to answer the query by the OP in the comments. $f:Ytomathbb{Z}$ is dominant means the generic point is in the image. That is, there exists a morphism $mathrm{Spec}, Kto Y$ which when composed with $f$ factors through the generic point $mathrm{Spec},mathbb{Q}subsetmathrm{Spec},mathbb{Z}$. Base changing to $mathrm{Spec},mathbb{C}to mathrm{Spec},mathbb{Q}$, we get a morphism $mathrm{Spec},(Kotimes_{mathbb{Q}}mathbb{C})to Ytimes_{mathbb{Z}}mathrm{Spec}, mathbb{C}$. Hope rest is clear.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • always so prompt and excellent answer
            – Intoks Liobein
            Nov 17 at 15:11










          • Can you explain a little bit for your very last step?
            – Intoks Liobein
            Nov 21 at 0:50













          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          Since $mathbb{Z}$ is a pid, flatness is same as torsion free. Since $Y$ is an integral scheme, torsion free just means the map is dominant. Dominance is equivalent to to $Y(mathbb{C})neqemptyset$.



          This is just to answer the query by the OP in the comments. $f:Ytomathbb{Z}$ is dominant means the generic point is in the image. That is, there exists a morphism $mathrm{Spec}, Kto Y$ which when composed with $f$ factors through the generic point $mathrm{Spec},mathbb{Q}subsetmathrm{Spec},mathbb{Z}$. Base changing to $mathrm{Spec},mathbb{C}to mathrm{Spec},mathbb{Q}$, we get a morphism $mathrm{Spec},(Kotimes_{mathbb{Q}}mathbb{C})to Ytimes_{mathbb{Z}}mathrm{Spec}, mathbb{C}$. Hope rest is clear.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Since $mathbb{Z}$ is a pid, flatness is same as torsion free. Since $Y$ is an integral scheme, torsion free just means the map is dominant. Dominance is equivalent to to $Y(mathbb{C})neqemptyset$.



          This is just to answer the query by the OP in the comments. $f:Ytomathbb{Z}$ is dominant means the generic point is in the image. That is, there exists a morphism $mathrm{Spec}, Kto Y$ which when composed with $f$ factors through the generic point $mathrm{Spec},mathbb{Q}subsetmathrm{Spec},mathbb{Z}$. Base changing to $mathrm{Spec},mathbb{C}to mathrm{Spec},mathbb{Q}$, we get a morphism $mathrm{Spec},(Kotimes_{mathbb{Q}}mathbb{C})to Ytimes_{mathbb{Z}}mathrm{Spec}, mathbb{C}$. Hope rest is clear.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 21 at 14:28

























          answered Nov 17 at 14:39









          Mohan

          11.5k1817




          11.5k1817












          • always so prompt and excellent answer
            – Intoks Liobein
            Nov 17 at 15:11










          • Can you explain a little bit for your very last step?
            – Intoks Liobein
            Nov 21 at 0:50


















          • always so prompt and excellent answer
            – Intoks Liobein
            Nov 17 at 15:11










          • Can you explain a little bit for your very last step?
            – Intoks Liobein
            Nov 21 at 0:50
















          always so prompt and excellent answer
          – Intoks Liobein
          Nov 17 at 15:11




          always so prompt and excellent answer
          – Intoks Liobein
          Nov 17 at 15:11












          Can you explain a little bit for your very last step?
          – Intoks Liobein
          Nov 21 at 0:50




          Can you explain a little bit for your very last step?
          – Intoks Liobein
          Nov 21 at 0:50


















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