Exercises on character group $G^*$ of a group $G$











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $S^1={z in mathbb{C} : |z|=1}$, which is a group under multiplication of functions. For a group $G$ define $G^*=Hom(G,S^1)$, the character group of $G$. Prove that $G^*$ is indeed a group under multiplication of functions.
Prove:



$a) (Aoplus B)^* cong A^* oplus B^*.$



$b)$ If $G$ is a finite abelian group then $G cong G^*$.



$c)$ Let $G$ be a finite abelian group and $H$ a subgroup of $G$. Show that there is a subgroup $N$ of $G$ such that $G/N cong H$. Similarily, if $H$ is isomorphic to a quotient group $G$ then $H$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $G$.



I need help with c), I am not sure if a),b) are correct.



Solution:
First we show $G^*$ is a group under multiplication.



Identity: $mathbb{1}:= mathbb{1}(a)=1 in G^*$ is the identity element in $G^*$ as if $f in G^*$, $(f*mathbb{1})(a)=f(a)*1=f(a)=1*f(a)=(mathbb{1}*f)(a)$.



Associativity: let $f,g,h in G^*$, $((f*g)*h)(a)= (f(a)*g(a))*h(a)=f(a)*(g(a)*h(a))=(f*(g*h))(a)$.



Inverse: Let $f in G^*$, then let $f^{-1}(a):=f(a)^{-1}$, we show $f^{-1}$ is a homomorpism: $f^{-1}(0)=f(0)^{-1}=1^{-1}=1$, $f^{-1}(a+b)=f(a+b)^{-1}=(f(a)f(b))^{-1}=f(a)^{-1}f(b)^{-1}=f^{-1}(a)f^{-1}(b)$.



Hence, $G^{*}$ is a group under multiplication.



a) Consider the map $phi: (Aoplus B)^* rightarrow A^* oplus B^*$ by $phi(f)=(f|_{A},f|_B)$, it is an isomorphism.



b) Let $G$ be a finite abelian group, then $G cong oplus_{1}^{n}mathbb{Z}_p$, by $2)$, $G^* cong oplus_{1}^{n}mathbb{Z}_p^* cong oplus_1^nmathbb{Z}_p$.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • In c) it looks like you're assuming that $mathbb{Z}_pcongmathbb{Z}_p^*$. Do you have a proof of that?
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:21








  • 1




    You mean b)? Here is my reasoning, $Z_p$ is a subgroup of $S^1$(the $p^{th}$ root of unity) and so $Z_p^*$ is the set of homomorphism from $Z_p$ to $Z_p$ which is the same as $Z_p$ as we can associate a homomorphism $tau$ to the number $tau(1)$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 17 at 12:27












  • Yes, I meant b) sorry. Your reasing is right. You could also think that an element of $mathbb{Z}_p^*$ is determined by the $p$-th root of $1in S^1$ you're mapping $1inmathbb{Z}_p$ to.
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:33












  • Your answer to a) was right, too. For the second part of c), see here
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:47












  • I'd like to write an answer for the first part of c). Are you familiar with exact sequences and elementary category theory (objetcts, morphisms, functors...)?
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 13:09















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $S^1={z in mathbb{C} : |z|=1}$, which is a group under multiplication of functions. For a group $G$ define $G^*=Hom(G,S^1)$, the character group of $G$. Prove that $G^*$ is indeed a group under multiplication of functions.
Prove:



$a) (Aoplus B)^* cong A^* oplus B^*.$



$b)$ If $G$ is a finite abelian group then $G cong G^*$.



$c)$ Let $G$ be a finite abelian group and $H$ a subgroup of $G$. Show that there is a subgroup $N$ of $G$ such that $G/N cong H$. Similarily, if $H$ is isomorphic to a quotient group $G$ then $H$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $G$.



I need help with c), I am not sure if a),b) are correct.



Solution:
First we show $G^*$ is a group under multiplication.



Identity: $mathbb{1}:= mathbb{1}(a)=1 in G^*$ is the identity element in $G^*$ as if $f in G^*$, $(f*mathbb{1})(a)=f(a)*1=f(a)=1*f(a)=(mathbb{1}*f)(a)$.



Associativity: let $f,g,h in G^*$, $((f*g)*h)(a)= (f(a)*g(a))*h(a)=f(a)*(g(a)*h(a))=(f*(g*h))(a)$.



Inverse: Let $f in G^*$, then let $f^{-1}(a):=f(a)^{-1}$, we show $f^{-1}$ is a homomorpism: $f^{-1}(0)=f(0)^{-1}=1^{-1}=1$, $f^{-1}(a+b)=f(a+b)^{-1}=(f(a)f(b))^{-1}=f(a)^{-1}f(b)^{-1}=f^{-1}(a)f^{-1}(b)$.



Hence, $G^{*}$ is a group under multiplication.



a) Consider the map $phi: (Aoplus B)^* rightarrow A^* oplus B^*$ by $phi(f)=(f|_{A},f|_B)$, it is an isomorphism.



b) Let $G$ be a finite abelian group, then $G cong oplus_{1}^{n}mathbb{Z}_p$, by $2)$, $G^* cong oplus_{1}^{n}mathbb{Z}_p^* cong oplus_1^nmathbb{Z}_p$.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • In c) it looks like you're assuming that $mathbb{Z}_pcongmathbb{Z}_p^*$. Do you have a proof of that?
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:21








  • 1




    You mean b)? Here is my reasoning, $Z_p$ is a subgroup of $S^1$(the $p^{th}$ root of unity) and so $Z_p^*$ is the set of homomorphism from $Z_p$ to $Z_p$ which is the same as $Z_p$ as we can associate a homomorphism $tau$ to the number $tau(1)$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 17 at 12:27












  • Yes, I meant b) sorry. Your reasing is right. You could also think that an element of $mathbb{Z}_p^*$ is determined by the $p$-th root of $1in S^1$ you're mapping $1inmathbb{Z}_p$ to.
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:33












  • Your answer to a) was right, too. For the second part of c), see here
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:47












  • I'd like to write an answer for the first part of c). Are you familiar with exact sequences and elementary category theory (objetcts, morphisms, functors...)?
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 13:09













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Let $S^1={z in mathbb{C} : |z|=1}$, which is a group under multiplication of functions. For a group $G$ define $G^*=Hom(G,S^1)$, the character group of $G$. Prove that $G^*$ is indeed a group under multiplication of functions.
Prove:



$a) (Aoplus B)^* cong A^* oplus B^*.$



$b)$ If $G$ is a finite abelian group then $G cong G^*$.



$c)$ Let $G$ be a finite abelian group and $H$ a subgroup of $G$. Show that there is a subgroup $N$ of $G$ such that $G/N cong H$. Similarily, if $H$ is isomorphic to a quotient group $G$ then $H$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $G$.



I need help with c), I am not sure if a),b) are correct.



Solution:
First we show $G^*$ is a group under multiplication.



Identity: $mathbb{1}:= mathbb{1}(a)=1 in G^*$ is the identity element in $G^*$ as if $f in G^*$, $(f*mathbb{1})(a)=f(a)*1=f(a)=1*f(a)=(mathbb{1}*f)(a)$.



Associativity: let $f,g,h in G^*$, $((f*g)*h)(a)= (f(a)*g(a))*h(a)=f(a)*(g(a)*h(a))=(f*(g*h))(a)$.



Inverse: Let $f in G^*$, then let $f^{-1}(a):=f(a)^{-1}$, we show $f^{-1}$ is a homomorpism: $f^{-1}(0)=f(0)^{-1}=1^{-1}=1$, $f^{-1}(a+b)=f(a+b)^{-1}=(f(a)f(b))^{-1}=f(a)^{-1}f(b)^{-1}=f^{-1}(a)f^{-1}(b)$.



Hence, $G^{*}$ is a group under multiplication.



a) Consider the map $phi: (Aoplus B)^* rightarrow A^* oplus B^*$ by $phi(f)=(f|_{A},f|_B)$, it is an isomorphism.



b) Let $G$ be a finite abelian group, then $G cong oplus_{1}^{n}mathbb{Z}_p$, by $2)$, $G^* cong oplus_{1}^{n}mathbb{Z}_p^* cong oplus_1^nmathbb{Z}_p$.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $S^1={z in mathbb{C} : |z|=1}$, which is a group under multiplication of functions. For a group $G$ define $G^*=Hom(G,S^1)$, the character group of $G$. Prove that $G^*$ is indeed a group under multiplication of functions.
Prove:



$a) (Aoplus B)^* cong A^* oplus B^*.$



$b)$ If $G$ is a finite abelian group then $G cong G^*$.



$c)$ Let $G$ be a finite abelian group and $H$ a subgroup of $G$. Show that there is a subgroup $N$ of $G$ such that $G/N cong H$. Similarily, if $H$ is isomorphic to a quotient group $G$ then $H$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $G$.



I need help with c), I am not sure if a),b) are correct.



Solution:
First we show $G^*$ is a group under multiplication.



Identity: $mathbb{1}:= mathbb{1}(a)=1 in G^*$ is the identity element in $G^*$ as if $f in G^*$, $(f*mathbb{1})(a)=f(a)*1=f(a)=1*f(a)=(mathbb{1}*f)(a)$.



Associativity: let $f,g,h in G^*$, $((f*g)*h)(a)= (f(a)*g(a))*h(a)=f(a)*(g(a)*h(a))=(f*(g*h))(a)$.



Inverse: Let $f in G^*$, then let $f^{-1}(a):=f(a)^{-1}$, we show $f^{-1}$ is a homomorpism: $f^{-1}(0)=f(0)^{-1}=1^{-1}=1$, $f^{-1}(a+b)=f(a+b)^{-1}=(f(a)f(b))^{-1}=f(a)^{-1}f(b)^{-1}=f^{-1}(a)f^{-1}(b)$.



Hence, $G^{*}$ is a group under multiplication.



a) Consider the map $phi: (Aoplus B)^* rightarrow A^* oplus B^*$ by $phi(f)=(f|_{A},f|_B)$, it is an isomorphism.



b) Let $G$ be a finite abelian group, then $G cong oplus_{1}^{n}mathbb{Z}_p$, by $2)$, $G^* cong oplus_{1}^{n}mathbb{Z}_p^* cong oplus_1^nmathbb{Z}_p$.







group-theory abelian-groups






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 17 at 12:10









Javi

2,4042725




2,4042725










asked Nov 17 at 11:55









mathnoob

1,137115




1,137115












  • In c) it looks like you're assuming that $mathbb{Z}_pcongmathbb{Z}_p^*$. Do you have a proof of that?
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:21








  • 1




    You mean b)? Here is my reasoning, $Z_p$ is a subgroup of $S^1$(the $p^{th}$ root of unity) and so $Z_p^*$ is the set of homomorphism from $Z_p$ to $Z_p$ which is the same as $Z_p$ as we can associate a homomorphism $tau$ to the number $tau(1)$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 17 at 12:27












  • Yes, I meant b) sorry. Your reasing is right. You could also think that an element of $mathbb{Z}_p^*$ is determined by the $p$-th root of $1in S^1$ you're mapping $1inmathbb{Z}_p$ to.
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:33












  • Your answer to a) was right, too. For the second part of c), see here
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:47












  • I'd like to write an answer for the first part of c). Are you familiar with exact sequences and elementary category theory (objetcts, morphisms, functors...)?
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 13:09


















  • In c) it looks like you're assuming that $mathbb{Z}_pcongmathbb{Z}_p^*$. Do you have a proof of that?
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:21








  • 1




    You mean b)? Here is my reasoning, $Z_p$ is a subgroup of $S^1$(the $p^{th}$ root of unity) and so $Z_p^*$ is the set of homomorphism from $Z_p$ to $Z_p$ which is the same as $Z_p$ as we can associate a homomorphism $tau$ to the number $tau(1)$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 17 at 12:27












  • Yes, I meant b) sorry. Your reasing is right. You could also think that an element of $mathbb{Z}_p^*$ is determined by the $p$-th root of $1in S^1$ you're mapping $1inmathbb{Z}_p$ to.
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:33












  • Your answer to a) was right, too. For the second part of c), see here
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 12:47












  • I'd like to write an answer for the first part of c). Are you familiar with exact sequences and elementary category theory (objetcts, morphisms, functors...)?
    – Javi
    Nov 17 at 13:09
















In c) it looks like you're assuming that $mathbb{Z}_pcongmathbb{Z}_p^*$. Do you have a proof of that?
– Javi
Nov 17 at 12:21






In c) it looks like you're assuming that $mathbb{Z}_pcongmathbb{Z}_p^*$. Do you have a proof of that?
– Javi
Nov 17 at 12:21






1




1




You mean b)? Here is my reasoning, $Z_p$ is a subgroup of $S^1$(the $p^{th}$ root of unity) and so $Z_p^*$ is the set of homomorphism from $Z_p$ to $Z_p$ which is the same as $Z_p$ as we can associate a homomorphism $tau$ to the number $tau(1)$.
– mathnoob
Nov 17 at 12:27






You mean b)? Here is my reasoning, $Z_p$ is a subgroup of $S^1$(the $p^{th}$ root of unity) and so $Z_p^*$ is the set of homomorphism from $Z_p$ to $Z_p$ which is the same as $Z_p$ as we can associate a homomorphism $tau$ to the number $tau(1)$.
– mathnoob
Nov 17 at 12:27














Yes, I meant b) sorry. Your reasing is right. You could also think that an element of $mathbb{Z}_p^*$ is determined by the $p$-th root of $1in S^1$ you're mapping $1inmathbb{Z}_p$ to.
– Javi
Nov 17 at 12:33






Yes, I meant b) sorry. Your reasing is right. You could also think that an element of $mathbb{Z}_p^*$ is determined by the $p$-th root of $1in S^1$ you're mapping $1inmathbb{Z}_p$ to.
– Javi
Nov 17 at 12:33














Your answer to a) was right, too. For the second part of c), see here
– Javi
Nov 17 at 12:47






Your answer to a) was right, too. For the second part of c), see here
– Javi
Nov 17 at 12:47














I'd like to write an answer for the first part of c). Are you familiar with exact sequences and elementary category theory (objetcts, morphisms, functors...)?
– Javi
Nov 17 at 13:09




I'd like to write an answer for the first part of c). Are you familiar with exact sequences and elementary category theory (objetcts, morphisms, functors...)?
– Javi
Nov 17 at 13:09










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










I don't know how much you know about category theory and homological algebra, but I'm going to prove the first part of c) showing that $Hom(-,S^1)$ is a contravariant right-exact functor from the category of finite abelian groups to itself.



That means that given the exact sequence $0to Hto Gto G/H$, it will give us an exact sequence $Hom(G/H,S^1)to Hom(G,S^1)to Hom(H,S^1)to 0$. And since $Hom(-,S^1)$ is the ''identity'' on objects, i.e., $Hom(G,S^1)cong G$, we will get an exact sequence $G/Hto Gto Hto 0$ (it actually gives an isomorphic exact sequence, but exactness of one follows from exactness of the other one). Since you know the definition of exact sequence, I'm assuming that you know that this mean that $Hcong G/mathrm{Im}(G/H)$ using the first isomorphism theorem, so $N= mathrm{Im}(G/H)$.



Given a homomorphism $h:Hto G$, there is a natural homomorphism $h^* =Hom(h,S^1):G^*to H^*$ given by $h^*(g)=gcirc h$. With this in mind, I'll let you check that $Hom(-,S^1)$ is indeed a contravariant functor using the definitions.



Now, we already have that $Hom(-,S^1)$ applied to $0to Hto Gto G/H $ gives us a (not yet exact) sequence $G/Hto Gto Hto 0$, since it reverses arrows and respects compositions in the contravariant sense. Then, let's prove that $Hom(-,S^1)$ transforms the injection $Hto G$ into a surjection $Gto H$.



To show that $h^*$ is surjective I take two homomorphisms $j: Fto H$ and $k:Fto H$ such that $j^*h^*=k^*h^*$. Let's apply this to $zin operatorname{Hom}(F,S^1)$. We get $j^*h^*(z)=k^*h^*(z)Rightarrow zcirc hcirc j=zcirc hcirc k$. Now take and injective $z$, which exists since the image of $(1,dots, 1)$ under the isomorphism $Fcong Hom(F,S^1)$ is injective. To see this, remember that an element of $Hom(F,S^1)$ is determined by the $p_i$-th root of unity that is the image of $1inmathbb{Z}_{p_i}$.
Since $F=oplus_{i=1}^nmathbb{Z}_{p_i}$ being $p_ineq p_j$ for $ineq j$, the only $p_i$-th root that is $p_j$-root is $1$. Then, by injectivity of $z$, $hcirc j=hcirc k$, and by injectivity of $h$, $j=k$, hence $j^*=k^*$ and therefore $h^*$ is surjective.



This shows that $Gto Hto 0$ is exact. Finally, we need to show that $ker{p^*}=mathrm{Im}{h^*}$, where $p:Gto G/H$ is the quotient map. This follows from the more general fact that $Hom(-,X)$ is left-exact in many contexts. It is not a hard proof so you could try to do it, but you can also look it up here in the case of $R$-modules (the proof for finite abelian groups is similar).



There are more general and abstract ways to prove this fact, for example the one in this answer, but since you don't know a lot about category theory I tried to use less of that machinery.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Let $i colon H to G$ be the inclusion homomorphism. We can define the homomorphism $i^* : G^* to H^*$ as $i^*(f) = f circ i$. @Javi proves that $i^*$ is surjective in the fifth paragraph of his answer. Apply the first isomorphism theorem to get $G^*/ker i^* cong H^*$. From (b), you can remove the stars from $G^*$ and $H^*$. You can also deduce from (b) that there is a subgroup $N < G$ with $N cong N^* cong ker i^*$.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • You're right, I did more than needed, I was immersed in the abstract nonsense hahaha
      – Javi
      Nov 18 at 12:12











    Your Answer





    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    });
    });
    }, "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function() {
    var channelOptions = {
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    };
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
    createEditor();
    });
    }
    else {
    createEditor();
    }
    });

    function createEditor() {
    StackExchange.prepareEditor({
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: true,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    imageUploader: {
    brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
    contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
    allowUrls: true
    },
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    });


    }
    });














    draft saved

    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function () {
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3002270%2fexercises-on-character-group-g-of-a-group-g%23new-answer', 'question_page');
    }
    );

    Post as a guest















    Required, but never shown

























    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    I don't know how much you know about category theory and homological algebra, but I'm going to prove the first part of c) showing that $Hom(-,S^1)$ is a contravariant right-exact functor from the category of finite abelian groups to itself.



    That means that given the exact sequence $0to Hto Gto G/H$, it will give us an exact sequence $Hom(G/H,S^1)to Hom(G,S^1)to Hom(H,S^1)to 0$. And since $Hom(-,S^1)$ is the ''identity'' on objects, i.e., $Hom(G,S^1)cong G$, we will get an exact sequence $G/Hto Gto Hto 0$ (it actually gives an isomorphic exact sequence, but exactness of one follows from exactness of the other one). Since you know the definition of exact sequence, I'm assuming that you know that this mean that $Hcong G/mathrm{Im}(G/H)$ using the first isomorphism theorem, so $N= mathrm{Im}(G/H)$.



    Given a homomorphism $h:Hto G$, there is a natural homomorphism $h^* =Hom(h,S^1):G^*to H^*$ given by $h^*(g)=gcirc h$. With this in mind, I'll let you check that $Hom(-,S^1)$ is indeed a contravariant functor using the definitions.



    Now, we already have that $Hom(-,S^1)$ applied to $0to Hto Gto G/H $ gives us a (not yet exact) sequence $G/Hto Gto Hto 0$, since it reverses arrows and respects compositions in the contravariant sense. Then, let's prove that $Hom(-,S^1)$ transforms the injection $Hto G$ into a surjection $Gto H$.



    To show that $h^*$ is surjective I take two homomorphisms $j: Fto H$ and $k:Fto H$ such that $j^*h^*=k^*h^*$. Let's apply this to $zin operatorname{Hom}(F,S^1)$. We get $j^*h^*(z)=k^*h^*(z)Rightarrow zcirc hcirc j=zcirc hcirc k$. Now take and injective $z$, which exists since the image of $(1,dots, 1)$ under the isomorphism $Fcong Hom(F,S^1)$ is injective. To see this, remember that an element of $Hom(F,S^1)$ is determined by the $p_i$-th root of unity that is the image of $1inmathbb{Z}_{p_i}$.
    Since $F=oplus_{i=1}^nmathbb{Z}_{p_i}$ being $p_ineq p_j$ for $ineq j$, the only $p_i$-th root that is $p_j$-root is $1$. Then, by injectivity of $z$, $hcirc j=hcirc k$, and by injectivity of $h$, $j=k$, hence $j^*=k^*$ and therefore $h^*$ is surjective.



    This shows that $Gto Hto 0$ is exact. Finally, we need to show that $ker{p^*}=mathrm{Im}{h^*}$, where $p:Gto G/H$ is the quotient map. This follows from the more general fact that $Hom(-,X)$ is left-exact in many contexts. It is not a hard proof so you could try to do it, but you can also look it up here in the case of $R$-modules (the proof for finite abelian groups is similar).



    There are more general and abstract ways to prove this fact, for example the one in this answer, but since you don't know a lot about category theory I tried to use less of that machinery.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      I don't know how much you know about category theory and homological algebra, but I'm going to prove the first part of c) showing that $Hom(-,S^1)$ is a contravariant right-exact functor from the category of finite abelian groups to itself.



      That means that given the exact sequence $0to Hto Gto G/H$, it will give us an exact sequence $Hom(G/H,S^1)to Hom(G,S^1)to Hom(H,S^1)to 0$. And since $Hom(-,S^1)$ is the ''identity'' on objects, i.e., $Hom(G,S^1)cong G$, we will get an exact sequence $G/Hto Gto Hto 0$ (it actually gives an isomorphic exact sequence, but exactness of one follows from exactness of the other one). Since you know the definition of exact sequence, I'm assuming that you know that this mean that $Hcong G/mathrm{Im}(G/H)$ using the first isomorphism theorem, so $N= mathrm{Im}(G/H)$.



      Given a homomorphism $h:Hto G$, there is a natural homomorphism $h^* =Hom(h,S^1):G^*to H^*$ given by $h^*(g)=gcirc h$. With this in mind, I'll let you check that $Hom(-,S^1)$ is indeed a contravariant functor using the definitions.



      Now, we already have that $Hom(-,S^1)$ applied to $0to Hto Gto G/H $ gives us a (not yet exact) sequence $G/Hto Gto Hto 0$, since it reverses arrows and respects compositions in the contravariant sense. Then, let's prove that $Hom(-,S^1)$ transforms the injection $Hto G$ into a surjection $Gto H$.



      To show that $h^*$ is surjective I take two homomorphisms $j: Fto H$ and $k:Fto H$ such that $j^*h^*=k^*h^*$. Let's apply this to $zin operatorname{Hom}(F,S^1)$. We get $j^*h^*(z)=k^*h^*(z)Rightarrow zcirc hcirc j=zcirc hcirc k$. Now take and injective $z$, which exists since the image of $(1,dots, 1)$ under the isomorphism $Fcong Hom(F,S^1)$ is injective. To see this, remember that an element of $Hom(F,S^1)$ is determined by the $p_i$-th root of unity that is the image of $1inmathbb{Z}_{p_i}$.
      Since $F=oplus_{i=1}^nmathbb{Z}_{p_i}$ being $p_ineq p_j$ for $ineq j$, the only $p_i$-th root that is $p_j$-root is $1$. Then, by injectivity of $z$, $hcirc j=hcirc k$, and by injectivity of $h$, $j=k$, hence $j^*=k^*$ and therefore $h^*$ is surjective.



      This shows that $Gto Hto 0$ is exact. Finally, we need to show that $ker{p^*}=mathrm{Im}{h^*}$, where $p:Gto G/H$ is the quotient map. This follows from the more general fact that $Hom(-,X)$ is left-exact in many contexts. It is not a hard proof so you could try to do it, but you can also look it up here in the case of $R$-modules (the proof for finite abelian groups is similar).



      There are more general and abstract ways to prove this fact, for example the one in this answer, but since you don't know a lot about category theory I tried to use less of that machinery.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted






        I don't know how much you know about category theory and homological algebra, but I'm going to prove the first part of c) showing that $Hom(-,S^1)$ is a contravariant right-exact functor from the category of finite abelian groups to itself.



        That means that given the exact sequence $0to Hto Gto G/H$, it will give us an exact sequence $Hom(G/H,S^1)to Hom(G,S^1)to Hom(H,S^1)to 0$. And since $Hom(-,S^1)$ is the ''identity'' on objects, i.e., $Hom(G,S^1)cong G$, we will get an exact sequence $G/Hto Gto Hto 0$ (it actually gives an isomorphic exact sequence, but exactness of one follows from exactness of the other one). Since you know the definition of exact sequence, I'm assuming that you know that this mean that $Hcong G/mathrm{Im}(G/H)$ using the first isomorphism theorem, so $N= mathrm{Im}(G/H)$.



        Given a homomorphism $h:Hto G$, there is a natural homomorphism $h^* =Hom(h,S^1):G^*to H^*$ given by $h^*(g)=gcirc h$. With this in mind, I'll let you check that $Hom(-,S^1)$ is indeed a contravariant functor using the definitions.



        Now, we already have that $Hom(-,S^1)$ applied to $0to Hto Gto G/H $ gives us a (not yet exact) sequence $G/Hto Gto Hto 0$, since it reverses arrows and respects compositions in the contravariant sense. Then, let's prove that $Hom(-,S^1)$ transforms the injection $Hto G$ into a surjection $Gto H$.



        To show that $h^*$ is surjective I take two homomorphisms $j: Fto H$ and $k:Fto H$ such that $j^*h^*=k^*h^*$. Let's apply this to $zin operatorname{Hom}(F,S^1)$. We get $j^*h^*(z)=k^*h^*(z)Rightarrow zcirc hcirc j=zcirc hcirc k$. Now take and injective $z$, which exists since the image of $(1,dots, 1)$ under the isomorphism $Fcong Hom(F,S^1)$ is injective. To see this, remember that an element of $Hom(F,S^1)$ is determined by the $p_i$-th root of unity that is the image of $1inmathbb{Z}_{p_i}$.
        Since $F=oplus_{i=1}^nmathbb{Z}_{p_i}$ being $p_ineq p_j$ for $ineq j$, the only $p_i$-th root that is $p_j$-root is $1$. Then, by injectivity of $z$, $hcirc j=hcirc k$, and by injectivity of $h$, $j=k$, hence $j^*=k^*$ and therefore $h^*$ is surjective.



        This shows that $Gto Hto 0$ is exact. Finally, we need to show that $ker{p^*}=mathrm{Im}{h^*}$, where $p:Gto G/H$ is the quotient map. This follows from the more general fact that $Hom(-,X)$ is left-exact in many contexts. It is not a hard proof so you could try to do it, but you can also look it up here in the case of $R$-modules (the proof for finite abelian groups is similar).



        There are more general and abstract ways to prove this fact, for example the one in this answer, but since you don't know a lot about category theory I tried to use less of that machinery.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        I don't know how much you know about category theory and homological algebra, but I'm going to prove the first part of c) showing that $Hom(-,S^1)$ is a contravariant right-exact functor from the category of finite abelian groups to itself.



        That means that given the exact sequence $0to Hto Gto G/H$, it will give us an exact sequence $Hom(G/H,S^1)to Hom(G,S^1)to Hom(H,S^1)to 0$. And since $Hom(-,S^1)$ is the ''identity'' on objects, i.e., $Hom(G,S^1)cong G$, we will get an exact sequence $G/Hto Gto Hto 0$ (it actually gives an isomorphic exact sequence, but exactness of one follows from exactness of the other one). Since you know the definition of exact sequence, I'm assuming that you know that this mean that $Hcong G/mathrm{Im}(G/H)$ using the first isomorphism theorem, so $N= mathrm{Im}(G/H)$.



        Given a homomorphism $h:Hto G$, there is a natural homomorphism $h^* =Hom(h,S^1):G^*to H^*$ given by $h^*(g)=gcirc h$. With this in mind, I'll let you check that $Hom(-,S^1)$ is indeed a contravariant functor using the definitions.



        Now, we already have that $Hom(-,S^1)$ applied to $0to Hto Gto G/H $ gives us a (not yet exact) sequence $G/Hto Gto Hto 0$, since it reverses arrows and respects compositions in the contravariant sense. Then, let's prove that $Hom(-,S^1)$ transforms the injection $Hto G$ into a surjection $Gto H$.



        To show that $h^*$ is surjective I take two homomorphisms $j: Fto H$ and $k:Fto H$ such that $j^*h^*=k^*h^*$. Let's apply this to $zin operatorname{Hom}(F,S^1)$. We get $j^*h^*(z)=k^*h^*(z)Rightarrow zcirc hcirc j=zcirc hcirc k$. Now take and injective $z$, which exists since the image of $(1,dots, 1)$ under the isomorphism $Fcong Hom(F,S^1)$ is injective. To see this, remember that an element of $Hom(F,S^1)$ is determined by the $p_i$-th root of unity that is the image of $1inmathbb{Z}_{p_i}$.
        Since $F=oplus_{i=1}^nmathbb{Z}_{p_i}$ being $p_ineq p_j$ for $ineq j$, the only $p_i$-th root that is $p_j$-root is $1$. Then, by injectivity of $z$, $hcirc j=hcirc k$, and by injectivity of $h$, $j=k$, hence $j^*=k^*$ and therefore $h^*$ is surjective.



        This shows that $Gto Hto 0$ is exact. Finally, we need to show that $ker{p^*}=mathrm{Im}{h^*}$, where $p:Gto G/H$ is the quotient map. This follows from the more general fact that $Hom(-,X)$ is left-exact in many contexts. It is not a hard proof so you could try to do it, but you can also look it up here in the case of $R$-modules (the proof for finite abelian groups is similar).



        There are more general and abstract ways to prove this fact, for example the one in this answer, but since you don't know a lot about category theory I tried to use less of that machinery.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 17 at 15:07









        Javi

        2,4042725




        2,4042725






















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Let $i colon H to G$ be the inclusion homomorphism. We can define the homomorphism $i^* : G^* to H^*$ as $i^*(f) = f circ i$. @Javi proves that $i^*$ is surjective in the fifth paragraph of his answer. Apply the first isomorphism theorem to get $G^*/ker i^* cong H^*$. From (b), you can remove the stars from $G^*$ and $H^*$. You can also deduce from (b) that there is a subgroup $N < G$ with $N cong N^* cong ker i^*$.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • You're right, I did more than needed, I was immersed in the abstract nonsense hahaha
              – Javi
              Nov 18 at 12:12















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Let $i colon H to G$ be the inclusion homomorphism. We can define the homomorphism $i^* : G^* to H^*$ as $i^*(f) = f circ i$. @Javi proves that $i^*$ is surjective in the fifth paragraph of his answer. Apply the first isomorphism theorem to get $G^*/ker i^* cong H^*$. From (b), you can remove the stars from $G^*$ and $H^*$. You can also deduce from (b) that there is a subgroup $N < G$ with $N cong N^* cong ker i^*$.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • You're right, I did more than needed, I was immersed in the abstract nonsense hahaha
              – Javi
              Nov 18 at 12:12













            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            Let $i colon H to G$ be the inclusion homomorphism. We can define the homomorphism $i^* : G^* to H^*$ as $i^*(f) = f circ i$. @Javi proves that $i^*$ is surjective in the fifth paragraph of his answer. Apply the first isomorphism theorem to get $G^*/ker i^* cong H^*$. From (b), you can remove the stars from $G^*$ and $H^*$. You can also deduce from (b) that there is a subgroup $N < G$ with $N cong N^* cong ker i^*$.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Let $i colon H to G$ be the inclusion homomorphism. We can define the homomorphism $i^* : G^* to H^*$ as $i^*(f) = f circ i$. @Javi proves that $i^*$ is surjective in the fifth paragraph of his answer. Apply the first isomorphism theorem to get $G^*/ker i^* cong H^*$. From (b), you can remove the stars from $G^*$ and $H^*$. You can also deduce from (b) that there is a subgroup $N < G$ with $N cong N^* cong ker i^*$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Nov 17 at 18:57

























            answered Nov 17 at 18:30









            Diego Pedraza

            665




            665












            • You're right, I did more than needed, I was immersed in the abstract nonsense hahaha
              – Javi
              Nov 18 at 12:12


















            • You're right, I did more than needed, I was immersed in the abstract nonsense hahaha
              – Javi
              Nov 18 at 12:12
















            You're right, I did more than needed, I was immersed in the abstract nonsense hahaha
            – Javi
            Nov 18 at 12:12




            You're right, I did more than needed, I was immersed in the abstract nonsense hahaha
            – Javi
            Nov 18 at 12:12


















            draft saved

            draft discarded




















































            Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





            Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


            Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3002270%2fexercises-on-character-group-g-of-a-group-g%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown





















































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown

































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown







            Popular posts from this blog

            QoS: MAC-Priority for clients behind a repeater

            Ивакино (Тотемский район)

            Can't locate Autom4te/ChannelDefs.pm in @INC (when it definitely is there)