Martingale problem with time-homogeneous Markov chain and a Poisson process











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Let





  • $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space


  • $(mathcal F_t)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be a filtration on $(Omega,mathcal A)$


  • $(E,mathcal E)$ be a measurable space


  • $(Y_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be a $(E,mathcal E)$-valued time-homogeneous $mathcal F$-Markov chain on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ with transition kernel $pi$


  • $(N_t)_{tge0}$ be a Poisson process on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ with intensity $lambdage0$


  • $B(E,mathcal E)$ denote the space of bounded $mathcal E$-measurable $f:Etomathbb R$


Assume $Y$ and $N$ are independent. Let $$X_t:=Y_{N_t};;;text{for }tge0$$ and $$(mathcal Lf)(x):=int q(x,{rm d}y)(f(y)-f(x));;;text{for }xin Etext{ and }fin B(E,mathcal E)$$ with $q:=lambdapi$.




Let $fin B(E,mathcal E)$. How can we show that $$M_t:=f(X_t)-int_0^t(mathcal Lf)(X_s):{rm d}s;;;text{for }tge0$$ is an $mathcal F$-martingale?




I guess that this is not too complicated, but I don't see the trick we need to show it.










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite
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    Let





    • $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space


    • $(mathcal F_t)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be a filtration on $(Omega,mathcal A)$


    • $(E,mathcal E)$ be a measurable space


    • $(Y_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be a $(E,mathcal E)$-valued time-homogeneous $mathcal F$-Markov chain on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ with transition kernel $pi$


    • $(N_t)_{tge0}$ be a Poisson process on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ with intensity $lambdage0$


    • $B(E,mathcal E)$ denote the space of bounded $mathcal E$-measurable $f:Etomathbb R$


    Assume $Y$ and $N$ are independent. Let $$X_t:=Y_{N_t};;;text{for }tge0$$ and $$(mathcal Lf)(x):=int q(x,{rm d}y)(f(y)-f(x));;;text{for }xin Etext{ and }fin B(E,mathcal E)$$ with $q:=lambdapi$.




    Let $fin B(E,mathcal E)$. How can we show that $$M_t:=f(X_t)-int_0^t(mathcal Lf)(X_s):{rm d}s;;;text{for }tge0$$ is an $mathcal F$-martingale?




    I guess that this is not too complicated, but I don't see the trick we need to show it.










    share|cite|improve this question


























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      Let





      • $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space


      • $(mathcal F_t)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be a filtration on $(Omega,mathcal A)$


      • $(E,mathcal E)$ be a measurable space


      • $(Y_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be a $(E,mathcal E)$-valued time-homogeneous $mathcal F$-Markov chain on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ with transition kernel $pi$


      • $(N_t)_{tge0}$ be a Poisson process on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ with intensity $lambdage0$


      • $B(E,mathcal E)$ denote the space of bounded $mathcal E$-measurable $f:Etomathbb R$


      Assume $Y$ and $N$ are independent. Let $$X_t:=Y_{N_t};;;text{for }tge0$$ and $$(mathcal Lf)(x):=int q(x,{rm d}y)(f(y)-f(x));;;text{for }xin Etext{ and }fin B(E,mathcal E)$$ with $q:=lambdapi$.




      Let $fin B(E,mathcal E)$. How can we show that $$M_t:=f(X_t)-int_0^t(mathcal Lf)(X_s):{rm d}s;;;text{for }tge0$$ is an $mathcal F$-martingale?




      I guess that this is not too complicated, but I don't see the trick we need to show it.










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let





      • $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space


      • $(mathcal F_t)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be a filtration on $(Omega,mathcal A)$


      • $(E,mathcal E)$ be a measurable space


      • $(Y_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be a $(E,mathcal E)$-valued time-homogeneous $mathcal F$-Markov chain on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ with transition kernel $pi$


      • $(N_t)_{tge0}$ be a Poisson process on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ with intensity $lambdage0$


      • $B(E,mathcal E)$ denote the space of bounded $mathcal E$-measurable $f:Etomathbb R$


      Assume $Y$ and $N$ are independent. Let $$X_t:=Y_{N_t};;;text{for }tge0$$ and $$(mathcal Lf)(x):=int q(x,{rm d}y)(f(y)-f(x));;;text{for }xin Etext{ and }fin B(E,mathcal E)$$ with $q:=lambdapi$.




      Let $fin B(E,mathcal E)$. How can we show that $$M_t:=f(X_t)-int_0^t(mathcal Lf)(X_s):{rm d}s;;;text{for }tge0$$ is an $mathcal F$-martingale?




      I guess that this is not too complicated, but I don't see the trick we need to show it.







      stochastic-processes markov-chains martingales stochastic-analysis poisson-process






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      edited Nov 17 at 16:29

























      asked Oct 12 at 18:16









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