The distance function on a metric space
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $Asubset X$ and $xin X$. Then
$xto d(x,A)$ is a uniformly continuous function.
If $partial A={xin X,:,d(x,A)=0}cap{xin X,:,d(x,X-A)=0}$, then $partial A$ is closed for any $Asubset X$.
If $A,B$ are subsets of $X$ then $d(A, B)=d(B,A)$.
If the function is uniformly continuous then $d(x,y)<delta $ implies $d(d(x,A)-d(y,A))<epsilon$ , I can not handle the last expression. Difficulty continues for 3rd choice also.
At least give me some hints. And for the 2nd choice I think it is true, as it is intersection of two closed sets. As finite intersection of closed sets closed $partial A$ closed. And logic for former two sets closed is that the sets are preimage of closed set (singleton ${0}$ is closed as $mathbb R$ is $T_1$) under continuous map. I am not very much sure about my ideas and want a verification.
real-analysis general-topology metric-spaces uniform-continuity
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $Asubset X$ and $xin X$. Then
$xto d(x,A)$ is a uniformly continuous function.
If $partial A={xin X,:,d(x,A)=0}cap{xin X,:,d(x,X-A)=0}$, then $partial A$ is closed for any $Asubset X$.
If $A,B$ are subsets of $X$ then $d(A, B)=d(B,A)$.
If the function is uniformly continuous then $d(x,y)<delta $ implies $d(d(x,A)-d(y,A))<epsilon$ , I can not handle the last expression. Difficulty continues for 3rd choice also.
At least give me some hints. And for the 2nd choice I think it is true, as it is intersection of two closed sets. As finite intersection of closed sets closed $partial A$ closed. And logic for former two sets closed is that the sets are preimage of closed set (singleton ${0}$ is closed as $mathbb R$ is $T_1$) under continuous map. I am not very much sure about my ideas and want a verification.
real-analysis general-topology metric-spaces uniform-continuity
I have shared my difficulties and thoughts. Please give me some hint at least.
– user121418
Jan 15 '14 at 23:47
By the way, you first point is also proved here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/48850/…
– jibounet
Jan 22 '14 at 12:45
See also: Distance is (uniformly) continuous.
– Martin Sleziak
yesterday
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $Asubset X$ and $xin X$. Then
$xto d(x,A)$ is a uniformly continuous function.
If $partial A={xin X,:,d(x,A)=0}cap{xin X,:,d(x,X-A)=0}$, then $partial A$ is closed for any $Asubset X$.
If $A,B$ are subsets of $X$ then $d(A, B)=d(B,A)$.
If the function is uniformly continuous then $d(x,y)<delta $ implies $d(d(x,A)-d(y,A))<epsilon$ , I can not handle the last expression. Difficulty continues for 3rd choice also.
At least give me some hints. And for the 2nd choice I think it is true, as it is intersection of two closed sets. As finite intersection of closed sets closed $partial A$ closed. And logic for former two sets closed is that the sets are preimage of closed set (singleton ${0}$ is closed as $mathbb R$ is $T_1$) under continuous map. I am not very much sure about my ideas and want a verification.
real-analysis general-topology metric-spaces uniform-continuity
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $Asubset X$ and $xin X$. Then
$xto d(x,A)$ is a uniformly continuous function.
If $partial A={xin X,:,d(x,A)=0}cap{xin X,:,d(x,X-A)=0}$, then $partial A$ is closed for any $Asubset X$.
If $A,B$ are subsets of $X$ then $d(A, B)=d(B,A)$.
If the function is uniformly continuous then $d(x,y)<delta $ implies $d(d(x,A)-d(y,A))<epsilon$ , I can not handle the last expression. Difficulty continues for 3rd choice also.
At least give me some hints. And for the 2nd choice I think it is true, as it is intersection of two closed sets. As finite intersection of closed sets closed $partial A$ closed. And logic for former two sets closed is that the sets are preimage of closed set (singleton ${0}$ is closed as $mathbb R$ is $T_1$) under continuous map. I am not very much sure about my ideas and want a verification.
real-analysis general-topology metric-spaces uniform-continuity
real-analysis general-topology metric-spaces uniform-continuity
edited Sep 2 '16 at 10:52
Martin Sleziak
44.4k7115268
44.4k7115268
asked Jan 15 '14 at 2:24
user121418
24219
24219
I have shared my difficulties and thoughts. Please give me some hint at least.
– user121418
Jan 15 '14 at 23:47
By the way, you first point is also proved here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/48850/…
– jibounet
Jan 22 '14 at 12:45
See also: Distance is (uniformly) continuous.
– Martin Sleziak
yesterday
add a comment |
I have shared my difficulties and thoughts. Please give me some hint at least.
– user121418
Jan 15 '14 at 23:47
By the way, you first point is also proved here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/48850/…
– jibounet
Jan 22 '14 at 12:45
See also: Distance is (uniformly) continuous.
– Martin Sleziak
yesterday
I have shared my difficulties and thoughts. Please give me some hint at least.
– user121418
Jan 15 '14 at 23:47
I have shared my difficulties and thoughts. Please give me some hint at least.
– user121418
Jan 15 '14 at 23:47
By the way, you first point is also proved here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/48850/…
– jibounet
Jan 22 '14 at 12:45
By the way, you first point is also proved here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/48850/…
– jibounet
Jan 22 '14 at 12:45
See also: Distance is (uniformly) continuous.
– Martin Sleziak
yesterday
See also: Distance is (uniformly) continuous.
– Martin Sleziak
yesterday
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $A$ be any non-empty subset of $X$. Then, for any $x in X$, let $d(x,A)$ be :
$$ d(x,A) = inf limits_{z in A} d(x,z) $$
It is true that the mapping $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ is uniformly
continuous as it is lipschitz continuous (with a lipschitz constant
equal to 1). (If you don't know about "lipschitz continuity", have a
look here.) Let us prove that :
$$ forall (x,y) in X^{2}, , bigvert d(x,A) - d(y,A) bigvert
leq d(x,y) $$
Let $(x,y) in X^{2}$ and let $z in A$. It follows from the
triangular inequality for $d$ that :
$$ d(x,z) leq d(x,y) + d(y,z) tag{1} $$
Note that, by definition : $forall z in A, , d(x,A) leq d(x,z)$.
Using this idea a first time gives :
$$ d(x,A) leq d(x,z) leq d(x,y) + d(y,z) $$
Using the same idea again leads to :
$$ d(x,A) - d(y,A) leq d(x,y) tag{2} $$
By symmetry ($x$ and $y$ play symmetric roles here), we have :
$$ d(y,A) - d(x,A) leq d(x,y) tag{3} $$
Eventually, $(2)$ and $(3)$ write :
$$ d(y,A) - d(x,y) leq d(x,A) leq d(y,A) + d(x,y) $$
which is exactly :
$$ bigvert d(x,A) - d(y,A) bigvert leq d(x,y) $$
As a conclusion, $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ is lipschitz continuous
on $X$, so it is uniformly continuous on $X$.
- You are right, $partial A$ is closed as it is the intersection of two closed sets. Each of the two sets are closed as they are the preimage of $left{ 0 right}$ (which is closed in $(mathbb{R},vert cdot vert)$) under the continuous mappings $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ and $x , longmapsto , d(x,X smallsetminus A)$.
- Let $A$ and $B$ be two non-empty subsets of $X$. Since $d$ is a distance, $d(x,y)=d(y,x)$ for all $(x,y) in X^{2}$. So, $d(A,B) = d(B,A)$ follows easily. By definition :
$$ begin{align*}
d(A,B) &= inf limits_{x in A} d(x,B) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{x in A} inf limits_{y in B} d(x,y) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{x in A} inf limits_{y in B} d(y,x) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{y in B} inf limits_{x in A} d(y,x) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{y in B} d(y,A) \[2mm]
&= d(B,A) \
end{align*}
$$
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $A$ be any non-empty subset of $X$. Then, for any $x in X$, let $d(x,A)$ be :
$$ d(x,A) = inf limits_{z in A} d(x,z) $$
It is true that the mapping $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ is uniformly
continuous as it is lipschitz continuous (with a lipschitz constant
equal to 1). (If you don't know about "lipschitz continuity", have a
look here.) Let us prove that :
$$ forall (x,y) in X^{2}, , bigvert d(x,A) - d(y,A) bigvert
leq d(x,y) $$
Let $(x,y) in X^{2}$ and let $z in A$. It follows from the
triangular inequality for $d$ that :
$$ d(x,z) leq d(x,y) + d(y,z) tag{1} $$
Note that, by definition : $forall z in A, , d(x,A) leq d(x,z)$.
Using this idea a first time gives :
$$ d(x,A) leq d(x,z) leq d(x,y) + d(y,z) $$
Using the same idea again leads to :
$$ d(x,A) - d(y,A) leq d(x,y) tag{2} $$
By symmetry ($x$ and $y$ play symmetric roles here), we have :
$$ d(y,A) - d(x,A) leq d(x,y) tag{3} $$
Eventually, $(2)$ and $(3)$ write :
$$ d(y,A) - d(x,y) leq d(x,A) leq d(y,A) + d(x,y) $$
which is exactly :
$$ bigvert d(x,A) - d(y,A) bigvert leq d(x,y) $$
As a conclusion, $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ is lipschitz continuous
on $X$, so it is uniformly continuous on $X$.
- You are right, $partial A$ is closed as it is the intersection of two closed sets. Each of the two sets are closed as they are the preimage of $left{ 0 right}$ (which is closed in $(mathbb{R},vert cdot vert)$) under the continuous mappings $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ and $x , longmapsto , d(x,X smallsetminus A)$.
- Let $A$ and $B$ be two non-empty subsets of $X$. Since $d$ is a distance, $d(x,y)=d(y,x)$ for all $(x,y) in X^{2}$. So, $d(A,B) = d(B,A)$ follows easily. By definition :
$$ begin{align*}
d(A,B) &= inf limits_{x in A} d(x,B) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{x in A} inf limits_{y in B} d(x,y) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{x in A} inf limits_{y in B} d(y,x) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{y in B} inf limits_{x in A} d(y,x) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{y in B} d(y,A) \[2mm]
&= d(B,A) \
end{align*}
$$
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $A$ be any non-empty subset of $X$. Then, for any $x in X$, let $d(x,A)$ be :
$$ d(x,A) = inf limits_{z in A} d(x,z) $$
It is true that the mapping $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ is uniformly
continuous as it is lipschitz continuous (with a lipschitz constant
equal to 1). (If you don't know about "lipschitz continuity", have a
look here.) Let us prove that :
$$ forall (x,y) in X^{2}, , bigvert d(x,A) - d(y,A) bigvert
leq d(x,y) $$
Let $(x,y) in X^{2}$ and let $z in A$. It follows from the
triangular inequality for $d$ that :
$$ d(x,z) leq d(x,y) + d(y,z) tag{1} $$
Note that, by definition : $forall z in A, , d(x,A) leq d(x,z)$.
Using this idea a first time gives :
$$ d(x,A) leq d(x,z) leq d(x,y) + d(y,z) $$
Using the same idea again leads to :
$$ d(x,A) - d(y,A) leq d(x,y) tag{2} $$
By symmetry ($x$ and $y$ play symmetric roles here), we have :
$$ d(y,A) - d(x,A) leq d(x,y) tag{3} $$
Eventually, $(2)$ and $(3)$ write :
$$ d(y,A) - d(x,y) leq d(x,A) leq d(y,A) + d(x,y) $$
which is exactly :
$$ bigvert d(x,A) - d(y,A) bigvert leq d(x,y) $$
As a conclusion, $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ is lipschitz continuous
on $X$, so it is uniformly continuous on $X$.
- You are right, $partial A$ is closed as it is the intersection of two closed sets. Each of the two sets are closed as they are the preimage of $left{ 0 right}$ (which is closed in $(mathbb{R},vert cdot vert)$) under the continuous mappings $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ and $x , longmapsto , d(x,X smallsetminus A)$.
- Let $A$ and $B$ be two non-empty subsets of $X$. Since $d$ is a distance, $d(x,y)=d(y,x)$ for all $(x,y) in X^{2}$. So, $d(A,B) = d(B,A)$ follows easily. By definition :
$$ begin{align*}
d(A,B) &= inf limits_{x in A} d(x,B) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{x in A} inf limits_{y in B} d(x,y) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{x in A} inf limits_{y in B} d(y,x) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{y in B} inf limits_{x in A} d(y,x) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{y in B} d(y,A) \[2mm]
&= d(B,A) \
end{align*}
$$
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $A$ be any non-empty subset of $X$. Then, for any $x in X$, let $d(x,A)$ be :
$$ d(x,A) = inf limits_{z in A} d(x,z) $$
It is true that the mapping $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ is uniformly
continuous as it is lipschitz continuous (with a lipschitz constant
equal to 1). (If you don't know about "lipschitz continuity", have a
look here.) Let us prove that :
$$ forall (x,y) in X^{2}, , bigvert d(x,A) - d(y,A) bigvert
leq d(x,y) $$
Let $(x,y) in X^{2}$ and let $z in A$. It follows from the
triangular inequality for $d$ that :
$$ d(x,z) leq d(x,y) + d(y,z) tag{1} $$
Note that, by definition : $forall z in A, , d(x,A) leq d(x,z)$.
Using this idea a first time gives :
$$ d(x,A) leq d(x,z) leq d(x,y) + d(y,z) $$
Using the same idea again leads to :
$$ d(x,A) - d(y,A) leq d(x,y) tag{2} $$
By symmetry ($x$ and $y$ play symmetric roles here), we have :
$$ d(y,A) - d(x,A) leq d(x,y) tag{3} $$
Eventually, $(2)$ and $(3)$ write :
$$ d(y,A) - d(x,y) leq d(x,A) leq d(y,A) + d(x,y) $$
which is exactly :
$$ bigvert d(x,A) - d(y,A) bigvert leq d(x,y) $$
As a conclusion, $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ is lipschitz continuous
on $X$, so it is uniformly continuous on $X$.
- You are right, $partial A$ is closed as it is the intersection of two closed sets. Each of the two sets are closed as they are the preimage of $left{ 0 right}$ (which is closed in $(mathbb{R},vert cdot vert)$) under the continuous mappings $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ and $x , longmapsto , d(x,X smallsetminus A)$.
- Let $A$ and $B$ be two non-empty subsets of $X$. Since $d$ is a distance, $d(x,y)=d(y,x)$ for all $(x,y) in X^{2}$. So, $d(A,B) = d(B,A)$ follows easily. By definition :
$$ begin{align*}
d(A,B) &= inf limits_{x in A} d(x,B) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{x in A} inf limits_{y in B} d(x,y) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{x in A} inf limits_{y in B} d(y,x) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{y in B} inf limits_{x in A} d(y,x) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{y in B} d(y,A) \[2mm]
&= d(B,A) \
end{align*}
$$
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $A$ be any non-empty subset of $X$. Then, for any $x in X$, let $d(x,A)$ be :
$$ d(x,A) = inf limits_{z in A} d(x,z) $$
It is true that the mapping $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ is uniformly
continuous as it is lipschitz continuous (with a lipschitz constant
equal to 1). (If you don't know about "lipschitz continuity", have a
look here.) Let us prove that :
$$ forall (x,y) in X^{2}, , bigvert d(x,A) - d(y,A) bigvert
leq d(x,y) $$
Let $(x,y) in X^{2}$ and let $z in A$. It follows from the
triangular inequality for $d$ that :
$$ d(x,z) leq d(x,y) + d(y,z) tag{1} $$
Note that, by definition : $forall z in A, , d(x,A) leq d(x,z)$.
Using this idea a first time gives :
$$ d(x,A) leq d(x,z) leq d(x,y) + d(y,z) $$
Using the same idea again leads to :
$$ d(x,A) - d(y,A) leq d(x,y) tag{2} $$
By symmetry ($x$ and $y$ play symmetric roles here), we have :
$$ d(y,A) - d(x,A) leq d(x,y) tag{3} $$
Eventually, $(2)$ and $(3)$ write :
$$ d(y,A) - d(x,y) leq d(x,A) leq d(y,A) + d(x,y) $$
which is exactly :
$$ bigvert d(x,A) - d(y,A) bigvert leq d(x,y) $$
As a conclusion, $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ is lipschitz continuous
on $X$, so it is uniformly continuous on $X$.
- You are right, $partial A$ is closed as it is the intersection of two closed sets. Each of the two sets are closed as they are the preimage of $left{ 0 right}$ (which is closed in $(mathbb{R},vert cdot vert)$) under the continuous mappings $x , longmapsto , d(x,A)$ and $x , longmapsto , d(x,X smallsetminus A)$.
- Let $A$ and $B$ be two non-empty subsets of $X$. Since $d$ is a distance, $d(x,y)=d(y,x)$ for all $(x,y) in X^{2}$. So, $d(A,B) = d(B,A)$ follows easily. By definition :
$$ begin{align*}
d(A,B) &= inf limits_{x in A} d(x,B) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{x in A} inf limits_{y in B} d(x,y) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{x in A} inf limits_{y in B} d(y,x) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{y in B} inf limits_{x in A} d(y,x) \[2mm]
&= inf limits_{y in B} d(y,A) \[2mm]
&= d(B,A) \
end{align*}
$$
answered Jan 22 '14 at 11:21
jibounet
5,6181031
5,6181031
add a comment |
add a comment |
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f638836%2fthe-distance-function-on-a-metric-space%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
I have shared my difficulties and thoughts. Please give me some hint at least.
– user121418
Jan 15 '14 at 23:47
By the way, you first point is also proved here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/48850/…
– jibounet
Jan 22 '14 at 12:45
See also: Distance is (uniformly) continuous.
– Martin Sleziak
yesterday