Noun form of “aver”?





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It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






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share|improve this question






























    up vote
    16
    down vote

    favorite
    2












    It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



    But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



    I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






    etymology language-evolution variants







    share|improve this question


























      up vote
      16
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      16
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2





      It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



      But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



      I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






      etymology language-evolution variants







      share|improve this question















      It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



      But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



      I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






      etymology language-evolution variants




      etymology language-evolution variants






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited Nov 16 at 16:40

























      asked Nov 15 at 19:54









      feetwet

      787828




      787828






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          25
          down vote













          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer























          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
            – feetwet
            Nov 15 at 20:01






          • 4




            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
            – user240918
            Nov 15 at 20:08






          • 2




            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
            – PLL
            Nov 16 at 9:17




















          up vote
          19
          down vote













          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer



















          • 2




            averral is non-standard.
            – Kris
            Nov 16 at 9:53










          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
            – TonyK
            Nov 16 at 11:23










          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
            – user240918
            Nov 16 at 13:34








          • 2




            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 at 13:38






          • 1




            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
            – 1006a
            Nov 16 at 17:20











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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          25
          down vote













          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer























          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
            – feetwet
            Nov 15 at 20:01






          • 4




            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
            – user240918
            Nov 15 at 20:08






          • 2




            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
            – PLL
            Nov 16 at 9:17

















          up vote
          25
          down vote













          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer























          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
            – feetwet
            Nov 15 at 20:01






          • 4




            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
            – user240918
            Nov 15 at 20:08






          • 2




            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
            – PLL
            Nov 16 at 9:17















          up vote
          25
          down vote










          up vote
          25
          down vote









          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer














          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.








          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Nov 15 at 20:02

























          answered Nov 15 at 19:59









          user240918

          23.2k865144




          23.2k865144












          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
            – feetwet
            Nov 15 at 20:01






          • 4




            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
            – user240918
            Nov 15 at 20:08






          • 2




            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
            – PLL
            Nov 16 at 9:17




















          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
            – feetwet
            Nov 15 at 20:01






          • 4




            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
            – user240918
            Nov 15 at 20:08






          • 2




            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
            – PLL
            Nov 16 at 9:17


















          Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
          – feetwet
          Nov 15 at 20:01




          Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
          – feetwet
          Nov 15 at 20:01




          4




          4




          @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
          – user240918
          Nov 15 at 20:08




          @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
          – user240918
          Nov 15 at 20:08




          2




          2




          @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
          – PLL
          Nov 16 at 9:17






          @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
          – PLL
          Nov 16 at 9:17














          up vote
          19
          down vote













          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer



















          • 2




            averral is non-standard.
            – Kris
            Nov 16 at 9:53










          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
            – TonyK
            Nov 16 at 11:23










          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
            – user240918
            Nov 16 at 13:34








          • 2




            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 at 13:38






          • 1




            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
            – 1006a
            Nov 16 at 17:20















          up vote
          19
          down vote













          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer



















          • 2




            averral is non-standard.
            – Kris
            Nov 16 at 9:53










          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
            – TonyK
            Nov 16 at 11:23










          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
            – user240918
            Nov 16 at 13:34








          • 2




            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 at 13:38






          • 1




            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
            – 1006a
            Nov 16 at 17:20













          up vote
          19
          down vote










          up vote
          19
          down vote









          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer














          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Nov 16 at 14:50

























          answered Nov 16 at 0:18









          TonyK

          1,852310




          1,852310








          • 2




            averral is non-standard.
            – Kris
            Nov 16 at 9:53










          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
            – TonyK
            Nov 16 at 11:23










          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
            – user240918
            Nov 16 at 13:34








          • 2




            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 at 13:38






          • 1




            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
            – 1006a
            Nov 16 at 17:20














          • 2




            averral is non-standard.
            – Kris
            Nov 16 at 9:53










          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
            – TonyK
            Nov 16 at 11:23










          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
            – user240918
            Nov 16 at 13:34








          • 2




            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 at 13:38






          • 1




            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
            – 1006a
            Nov 16 at 17:20








          2




          2




          averral is non-standard.
          – Kris
          Nov 16 at 9:53




          averral is non-standard.
          – Kris
          Nov 16 at 9:53












          @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
          – TonyK
          Nov 16 at 11:23




          @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
          – TonyK
          Nov 16 at 11:23












          Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
          – user240918
          Nov 16 at 13:34






          Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
          – user240918
          Nov 16 at 13:34






          2




          2




          @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
          – T.J. Crowder
          Nov 16 at 13:38




          @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
          – T.J. Crowder
          Nov 16 at 13:38




          1




          1




          @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
          – 1006a
          Nov 16 at 17:20




          @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
          – 1006a
          Nov 16 at 17:20


















           

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          QoS: MAC-Priority for clients behind a repeater

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          1 1 I've setup a wireless network using a Linksys-Router (DD-WRT) as an AP and a TP-Link repeater for range extension. To manage bandwith for specific users, I've setup QoS-Rules on the AP (DD-WRT) using MAC-Priority: However the AP shows only the Repeater's MAC and the MACs of users inside the AP-Range. The MAC addresses of users behind the Repeater are not listed : The purple MAC is not listed in the AP-Clientlist. Its related to a device connected via the TP-Link repeater. Q: How can I setup MAC-Priority for repeater-clients? Do I simply add the purple MAC in AP-MAC priority list although it's not listed as a client? I want to setup specific priority instead of giving one priority for all clients behind the repeater by adding the repeater's MAC in the MAC priority list in the AP as ...
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