Argument Principle-like complex integral involving logarithm











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Let $g$ be a holomorphic function on $C$ and its interior, where $C$ is a circle with a radius $r$ around the origin. Furthermore let's assume that $g$ doesn't assume a zero value on $C$ and its interior. Evaluate the integral:



$$oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz$$




I tried parametrizing the circle as $re^{it}$ and using the line $t = pi$ as a branch cut for the logarithm. The most I could get is:



$$oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz = -r int_{-pi}^{pi}te^{it}frac{g'(re^{it})}{g(re^{it})} dt = 2pi i log(g(-r)) - iint_{-pi}^{pi}log(g(re^{it}))dt$$



where in the last part I used integration by parts. However I can't evaluate the last integral. If I apply integral by parts again to it I return back to the initial problem.



On the other side the integral resembles the Argument Principle, but this time $g$ is holomorphic on the region, so I don't how we can take advantage of it.





Additionally if I'm not mistaken we have that:



$$lim_{r to 0}oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz = 0$$



I proved this by using the fact that $left|frac{g'(z)}{g(z)}right|$ can be bounded by some $M$, not dependent on $r$ and then:



$$left|oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dzright|leoint_C left|log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)}right| dz le 2pi r (ln r + pi)M$$
Upon taking limit from both sides we get the answer.



This somehow does the job for me, but I'm still interested in whether the integral can be evaluated explicitly for any $r>0$










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  • If $arg zin[a,a+2pi)$, the integral should equal $-2pi i(ln(g(re^{ia}))-ln(g(0)))$.
    – Szeto
    Nov 18 at 14:10












  • @Szeto Could you please elaborate more
    – Stefan4024
    Nov 18 at 14:28















up vote
0
down vote

favorite













Let $g$ be a holomorphic function on $C$ and its interior, where $C$ is a circle with a radius $r$ around the origin. Furthermore let's assume that $g$ doesn't assume a zero value on $C$ and its interior. Evaluate the integral:



$$oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz$$




I tried parametrizing the circle as $re^{it}$ and using the line $t = pi$ as a branch cut for the logarithm. The most I could get is:



$$oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz = -r int_{-pi}^{pi}te^{it}frac{g'(re^{it})}{g(re^{it})} dt = 2pi i log(g(-r)) - iint_{-pi}^{pi}log(g(re^{it}))dt$$



where in the last part I used integration by parts. However I can't evaluate the last integral. If I apply integral by parts again to it I return back to the initial problem.



On the other side the integral resembles the Argument Principle, but this time $g$ is holomorphic on the region, so I don't how we can take advantage of it.





Additionally if I'm not mistaken we have that:



$$lim_{r to 0}oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz = 0$$



I proved this by using the fact that $left|frac{g'(z)}{g(z)}right|$ can be bounded by some $M$, not dependent on $r$ and then:



$$left|oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dzright|leoint_C left|log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)}right| dz le 2pi r (ln r + pi)M$$
Upon taking limit from both sides we get the answer.



This somehow does the job for me, but I'm still interested in whether the integral can be evaluated explicitly for any $r>0$










share|cite|improve this question






















  • If $arg zin[a,a+2pi)$, the integral should equal $-2pi i(ln(g(re^{ia}))-ln(g(0)))$.
    – Szeto
    Nov 18 at 14:10












  • @Szeto Could you please elaborate more
    – Stefan4024
    Nov 18 at 14:28













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $g$ be a holomorphic function on $C$ and its interior, where $C$ is a circle with a radius $r$ around the origin. Furthermore let's assume that $g$ doesn't assume a zero value on $C$ and its interior. Evaluate the integral:



$$oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz$$




I tried parametrizing the circle as $re^{it}$ and using the line $t = pi$ as a branch cut for the logarithm. The most I could get is:



$$oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz = -r int_{-pi}^{pi}te^{it}frac{g'(re^{it})}{g(re^{it})} dt = 2pi i log(g(-r)) - iint_{-pi}^{pi}log(g(re^{it}))dt$$



where in the last part I used integration by parts. However I can't evaluate the last integral. If I apply integral by parts again to it I return back to the initial problem.



On the other side the integral resembles the Argument Principle, but this time $g$ is holomorphic on the region, so I don't how we can take advantage of it.





Additionally if I'm not mistaken we have that:



$$lim_{r to 0}oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz = 0$$



I proved this by using the fact that $left|frac{g'(z)}{g(z)}right|$ can be bounded by some $M$, not dependent on $r$ and then:



$$left|oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dzright|leoint_C left|log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)}right| dz le 2pi r (ln r + pi)M$$
Upon taking limit from both sides we get the answer.



This somehow does the job for me, but I'm still interested in whether the integral can be evaluated explicitly for any $r>0$










share|cite|improve this question














Let $g$ be a holomorphic function on $C$ and its interior, where $C$ is a circle with a radius $r$ around the origin. Furthermore let's assume that $g$ doesn't assume a zero value on $C$ and its interior. Evaluate the integral:



$$oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz$$




I tried parametrizing the circle as $re^{it}$ and using the line $t = pi$ as a branch cut for the logarithm. The most I could get is:



$$oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz = -r int_{-pi}^{pi}te^{it}frac{g'(re^{it})}{g(re^{it})} dt = 2pi i log(g(-r)) - iint_{-pi}^{pi}log(g(re^{it}))dt$$



where in the last part I used integration by parts. However I can't evaluate the last integral. If I apply integral by parts again to it I return back to the initial problem.



On the other side the integral resembles the Argument Principle, but this time $g$ is holomorphic on the region, so I don't how we can take advantage of it.





Additionally if I'm not mistaken we have that:



$$lim_{r to 0}oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dz = 0$$



I proved this by using the fact that $left|frac{g'(z)}{g(z)}right|$ can be bounded by some $M$, not dependent on $r$ and then:



$$left|oint_C log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)} dzright|leoint_C left|log z frac{g'(z)}{g(z)}right| dz le 2pi r (ln r + pi)M$$
Upon taking limit from both sides we get the answer.



This somehow does the job for me, but I'm still interested in whether the integral can be evaluated explicitly for any $r>0$







integration complex-analysis logarithms complex-integration






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asked Nov 18 at 13:56









Stefan4024

30k63377




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  • If $arg zin[a,a+2pi)$, the integral should equal $-2pi i(ln(g(re^{ia}))-ln(g(0)))$.
    – Szeto
    Nov 18 at 14:10












  • @Szeto Could you please elaborate more
    – Stefan4024
    Nov 18 at 14:28


















  • If $arg zin[a,a+2pi)$, the integral should equal $-2pi i(ln(g(re^{ia}))-ln(g(0)))$.
    – Szeto
    Nov 18 at 14:10












  • @Szeto Could you please elaborate more
    – Stefan4024
    Nov 18 at 14:28
















If $arg zin[a,a+2pi)$, the integral should equal $-2pi i(ln(g(re^{ia}))-ln(g(0)))$.
– Szeto
Nov 18 at 14:10






If $arg zin[a,a+2pi)$, the integral should equal $-2pi i(ln(g(re^{ia}))-ln(g(0)))$.
– Szeto
Nov 18 at 14:10














@Szeto Could you please elaborate more
– Stefan4024
Nov 18 at 14:28




@Szeto Could you please elaborate more
– Stefan4024
Nov 18 at 14:28










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Let $f(z)=g’/g$.



Your aim is to find $$int_{gamma_1}f(z)log z~dz$$



By Cauchy’s integral theorem,
$$int_{gamma_1}=-left(int_{gamma_2}+ int_{gamma_3}+ int_{gamma_4}right)$$



You have proved $int_{gamma_3}=0$.



By the theorem I wrote here,
$$left(int_{gamma_2}+ int_{gamma_4}right)f(z)log z~dz=-2pi iint^{re^{ia}}_0f(z)dz$$



So, indeed,
$$int_{gamma_1}frac{g’(z)}{g(z)}log z~dz=2pi i[ln g(re^{ia})-ln g(0)]$$






share|cite|improve this answer























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    down vote



    accepted












    Let $f(z)=g’/g$.



    Your aim is to find $$int_{gamma_1}f(z)log z~dz$$



    By Cauchy’s integral theorem,
    $$int_{gamma_1}=-left(int_{gamma_2}+ int_{gamma_3}+ int_{gamma_4}right)$$



    You have proved $int_{gamma_3}=0$.



    By the theorem I wrote here,
    $$left(int_{gamma_2}+ int_{gamma_4}right)f(z)log z~dz=-2pi iint^{re^{ia}}_0f(z)dz$$



    So, indeed,
    $$int_{gamma_1}frac{g’(z)}{g(z)}log z~dz=2pi i[ln g(re^{ia})-ln g(0)]$$






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted












      Let $f(z)=g’/g$.



      Your aim is to find $$int_{gamma_1}f(z)log z~dz$$



      By Cauchy’s integral theorem,
      $$int_{gamma_1}=-left(int_{gamma_2}+ int_{gamma_3}+ int_{gamma_4}right)$$



      You have proved $int_{gamma_3}=0$.



      By the theorem I wrote here,
      $$left(int_{gamma_2}+ int_{gamma_4}right)f(z)log z~dz=-2pi iint^{re^{ia}}_0f(z)dz$$



      So, indeed,
      $$int_{gamma_1}frac{g’(z)}{g(z)}log z~dz=2pi i[ln g(re^{ia})-ln g(0)]$$






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted








        Let $f(z)=g’/g$.



        Your aim is to find $$int_{gamma_1}f(z)log z~dz$$



        By Cauchy’s integral theorem,
        $$int_{gamma_1}=-left(int_{gamma_2}+ int_{gamma_3}+ int_{gamma_4}right)$$



        You have proved $int_{gamma_3}=0$.



        By the theorem I wrote here,
        $$left(int_{gamma_2}+ int_{gamma_4}right)f(z)log z~dz=-2pi iint^{re^{ia}}_0f(z)dz$$



        So, indeed,
        $$int_{gamma_1}frac{g’(z)}{g(z)}log z~dz=2pi i[ln g(re^{ia})-ln g(0)]$$






        share|cite|improve this answer
















        Let $f(z)=g’/g$.



        Your aim is to find $$int_{gamma_1}f(z)log z~dz$$



        By Cauchy’s integral theorem,
        $$int_{gamma_1}=-left(int_{gamma_2}+ int_{gamma_3}+ int_{gamma_4}right)$$



        You have proved $int_{gamma_3}=0$.



        By the theorem I wrote here,
        $$left(int_{gamma_2}+ int_{gamma_4}right)f(z)log z~dz=-2pi iint^{re^{ia}}_0f(z)dz$$



        So, indeed,
        $$int_{gamma_1}frac{g’(z)}{g(z)}log z~dz=2pi i[ln g(re^{ia})-ln g(0)]$$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 19 at 0:09

























        answered Nov 19 at 0:02









        Szeto

        6,2792726




        6,2792726






























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