Converting a 2-form on $mathbb{R}^{3}$ to a vector field on $mathbb{R}^{3}$











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How do I convert a 2-form $x dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz$ on $mathbb{R^{3}}$ to a vector field on $mathbb{R^{3}}$?



Attempt:



Suppose we have two vectors fields a and b in $mathbb{R^{3}}$ such that $a=(a_{1},a_{2},a_{3})$ and $b=(b_{1},b_{2},b_{3})$ .



Now,



$(dy wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{2} & a_{3} \ b_{2} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} = a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}$



$(dx wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{1} & a_{3} \ b_{1} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} =a_{1}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{1}$



I ended up getting



$x (a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}) + y^2 (a_{1}b_{3}-a{3}b_{1})$



How does the $x$ and the $y^{2}$ convert?










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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    How do I convert a 2-form $x dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz$ on $mathbb{R^{3}}$ to a vector field on $mathbb{R^{3}}$?



    Attempt:



    Suppose we have two vectors fields a and b in $mathbb{R^{3}}$ such that $a=(a_{1},a_{2},a_{3})$ and $b=(b_{1},b_{2},b_{3})$ .



    Now,



    $(dy wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{2} & a_{3} \ b_{2} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} = a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}$



    $(dx wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{1} & a_{3} \ b_{1} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} =a_{1}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{1}$



    I ended up getting



    $x (a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}) + y^2 (a_{1}b_{3}-a{3}b_{1})$



    How does the $x$ and the $y^{2}$ convert?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      How do I convert a 2-form $x dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz$ on $mathbb{R^{3}}$ to a vector field on $mathbb{R^{3}}$?



      Attempt:



      Suppose we have two vectors fields a and b in $mathbb{R^{3}}$ such that $a=(a_{1},a_{2},a_{3})$ and $b=(b_{1},b_{2},b_{3})$ .



      Now,



      $(dy wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{2} & a_{3} \ b_{2} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} = a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}$



      $(dx wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{1} & a_{3} \ b_{1} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} =a_{1}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{1}$



      I ended up getting



      $x (a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}) + y^2 (a_{1}b_{3}-a{3}b_{1})$



      How does the $x$ and the $y^{2}$ convert?










      share|cite|improve this question













      How do I convert a 2-form $x dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz$ on $mathbb{R^{3}}$ to a vector field on $mathbb{R^{3}}$?



      Attempt:



      Suppose we have two vectors fields a and b in $mathbb{R^{3}}$ such that $a=(a_{1},a_{2},a_{3})$ and $b=(b_{1},b_{2},b_{3})$ .



      Now,



      $(dy wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{2} & a_{3} \ b_{2} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} = a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}$



      $(dx wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{1} & a_{3} \ b_{1} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} =a_{1}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{1}$



      I ended up getting



      $x (a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}) + y^2 (a_{1}b_{3}-a{3}b_{1})$



      How does the $x$ and the $y^{2}$ convert?







      vector-analysis






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      asked Nov 17 at 20:16









      usukidoll

      1,1621032




      1,1621032






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Edit:
          The user Travis just pointed to an more general way in the comments.



          With the volume from
          $$Omega = mathbf e_1 wedge mathbf e_2 wedge mathbf e_3$$
          we get an isomorphism via
          $$
          T mathbb R^3 to Lambda^2 mathbb R^3 : mathbf v mapsto Omega( mathbf v, cdot, cdot).
          $$



          It's inverse yields exactly the same map as described below, i.e.
          $$mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z mapsto mathbf e_1,
          quad
          mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x mapsto mathbf e_2 quad text{and} quad
          mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y mapsto mathbf e_3.$$



          Old, less general reply:



          There is the Hodge star operator, which assigns
          $$star(mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z) mapsto mathrm{d} x,
          quad
          star(mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x) mapsto mathrm dy quad text{and} quad
          star(mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y) mapsto mathrm d z.$$



          You can look up the exact definition of the Hodge star operator in the link above or in books. It is a map $Lambda^k mathcal M to Lambda^{m-k} mathcal M$. In our case it allows us to convert a 2-from into a 1-from.



          Then we are left with the task to convert a 1-from (or a co-tangential vector) into a tangential vector. Such a map is for example provided, if there is a scalar product on the tangential spaces, i.e. a Riemannian metric $langle cdot , cdot rangle$.



          At a point $p in mathcal M$, the map is given by
          $$T_p mathcal M to T^*_p mathcal M: mathbf v mapsto langle mathbf v, cdot rangle_p.$$



          In the case of $mathbb R^3$ the inverse of this map is given by
          $$mathrm dx mapsto mathbf e_1 = begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 end{pmatrix},
          quad
          mathrm dy mapsto mathbf e_2 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 end{pmatrix} quad text{and} quad
          mathrm dz mapsto mathbf e_3 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 end{pmatrix}.$$



          Putting those two isomorphism together yields a map $Lambda^2_p mathbb R^3 to T_p mathbb R^3$.



          Why?
          For an intuition, I always think of $mathrm{d} x wedge mathrm{d} y$ as something which measures two dimensional volumes in $mathbb R^3$ and the vector $mathbf e_1$ is somehow a vector which is needed to span up the rest or $mathbb R^3$, something like a normal vector to the surface.



          Hodge star operator



          Example



          In your case, we get the 1-from
          $$star(x mathrm dy wedge mathrm dz + y^2 mathrm dx wedge mathrm dz) = x mathrm d x - y^2 mathrm d y =: omega.$$



          Following the steps from above, the vector field is then defined as
          $$
          mathbf v = omega(mathbf e_1) mathbf e_1 + omega(mathbf e_2) mathbf e_2 + omega(mathbf e_3) mathbf e_3.
          $$



          Hence, the corresponding vector field is
          $$
          begin{pmatrix} x \ -y^2 \ 0 end{pmatrix}.
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
            – usukidoll
            Nov 17 at 21:04










          • Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
            – Steffen Plunder
            Nov 17 at 21:19






          • 1




            This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
            – Travis
            Nov 17 at 21:37






          • 1




            Thanks for the hint!
            – Steffen Plunder
            Nov 17 at 21:49






          • 1




            Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
            – Travis
            Nov 18 at 6:15


















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          While the question is about vector fields, the map $phi : Gamma(bigwedge^2 T^* Bbb R^3) stackrel{cong}{to} Gamma(bigwedge^1 T Bbb R^3) = Gamma(T Bbb R^3)$ is tensorial, so it suffices to describe it at a single point, say, $phi_0 : Lambda^2 T^*_0 Bbb R^3 to T_0 Bbb R^3$. Using the canonical identification $T_a Bbb R^3 cong Bbb R^3$ and suppressing the subscript, we'll write $$phi : textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*} stackrel{cong}{to} textstyle{bigwedge^1 Bbb R^3} = Bbb R^3 .$$



          First, since this map is linear, so as with any linear map the coefficients come along for the ride:
          $$phi(x ,dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz) = x phi(dy wedge dz) + y^2 phi(dx wedge dz) .$$



          We get such a map from any volume form, that is, any nonvanishing top form $omega in bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$. With this in hand, it's easier to describe the inverse, which is just interior multiplication,



          $$phi^{-1} : Bbb R^3 to textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*}, qquad X mapsto iota_X omega = omega(X,,cdot,,,cdot,) .$$



          Since it's not stated otherwise, we'll take the standard volume form, $dx wedge dy wedge dz$. So, for example, $$phi^{-1}(partial_x) = iota_{partial_x} (dx wedge dy wedge dz) = dy wedge dz .$$ Thus,
          $$boxed{phi(dy wedge dz) = partial_x} ,$$
          and by symmetry cyclic permutation gives that image under $phi$ of the other two basis elements.



          We can also write down the inverse in an invariant (i.e., coordinate-independent) way: Since the space $bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$ is $1$-dimensional, there is a unique element $Omega$ of its dual, $bigwedge^3 Bbb R^3$, that satisfies $omega(Omega) = 3! = 6$. Here, the notation on the l.h.s. just means the full contraction of $omega$ and $Omega$.) Then, checking on a basis (again, by symmetry, it's enough to check a single basis element), we find that
          $$phi(mu) = frac{1}{2} Omega(mu,,cdot,),$$
          where the notation on the r.h.s. just means that we contract $mu$ with the first two slots of $Omega$. Computing gives in our case that $$Omega = partial_x wedge partial_y wedge partial_z .$$






          share|cite|improve this answer























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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Edit:
            The user Travis just pointed to an more general way in the comments.



            With the volume from
            $$Omega = mathbf e_1 wedge mathbf e_2 wedge mathbf e_3$$
            we get an isomorphism via
            $$
            T mathbb R^3 to Lambda^2 mathbb R^3 : mathbf v mapsto Omega( mathbf v, cdot, cdot).
            $$



            It's inverse yields exactly the same map as described below, i.e.
            $$mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z mapsto mathbf e_1,
            quad
            mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x mapsto mathbf e_2 quad text{and} quad
            mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y mapsto mathbf e_3.$$



            Old, less general reply:



            There is the Hodge star operator, which assigns
            $$star(mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z) mapsto mathrm{d} x,
            quad
            star(mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x) mapsto mathrm dy quad text{and} quad
            star(mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y) mapsto mathrm d z.$$



            You can look up the exact definition of the Hodge star operator in the link above or in books. It is a map $Lambda^k mathcal M to Lambda^{m-k} mathcal M$. In our case it allows us to convert a 2-from into a 1-from.



            Then we are left with the task to convert a 1-from (or a co-tangential vector) into a tangential vector. Such a map is for example provided, if there is a scalar product on the tangential spaces, i.e. a Riemannian metric $langle cdot , cdot rangle$.



            At a point $p in mathcal M$, the map is given by
            $$T_p mathcal M to T^*_p mathcal M: mathbf v mapsto langle mathbf v, cdot rangle_p.$$



            In the case of $mathbb R^3$ the inverse of this map is given by
            $$mathrm dx mapsto mathbf e_1 = begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 end{pmatrix},
            quad
            mathrm dy mapsto mathbf e_2 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 end{pmatrix} quad text{and} quad
            mathrm dz mapsto mathbf e_3 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 end{pmatrix}.$$



            Putting those two isomorphism together yields a map $Lambda^2_p mathbb R^3 to T_p mathbb R^3$.



            Why?
            For an intuition, I always think of $mathrm{d} x wedge mathrm{d} y$ as something which measures two dimensional volumes in $mathbb R^3$ and the vector $mathbf e_1$ is somehow a vector which is needed to span up the rest or $mathbb R^3$, something like a normal vector to the surface.



            Hodge star operator



            Example



            In your case, we get the 1-from
            $$star(x mathrm dy wedge mathrm dz + y^2 mathrm dx wedge mathrm dz) = x mathrm d x - y^2 mathrm d y =: omega.$$



            Following the steps from above, the vector field is then defined as
            $$
            mathbf v = omega(mathbf e_1) mathbf e_1 + omega(mathbf e_2) mathbf e_2 + omega(mathbf e_3) mathbf e_3.
            $$



            Hence, the corresponding vector field is
            $$
            begin{pmatrix} x \ -y^2 \ 0 end{pmatrix}.
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
              – usukidoll
              Nov 17 at 21:04










            • Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
              – Steffen Plunder
              Nov 17 at 21:19






            • 1




              This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
              – Travis
              Nov 17 at 21:37






            • 1




              Thanks for the hint!
              – Steffen Plunder
              Nov 17 at 21:49






            • 1




              Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
              – Travis
              Nov 18 at 6:15















            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Edit:
            The user Travis just pointed to an more general way in the comments.



            With the volume from
            $$Omega = mathbf e_1 wedge mathbf e_2 wedge mathbf e_3$$
            we get an isomorphism via
            $$
            T mathbb R^3 to Lambda^2 mathbb R^3 : mathbf v mapsto Omega( mathbf v, cdot, cdot).
            $$



            It's inverse yields exactly the same map as described below, i.e.
            $$mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z mapsto mathbf e_1,
            quad
            mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x mapsto mathbf e_2 quad text{and} quad
            mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y mapsto mathbf e_3.$$



            Old, less general reply:



            There is the Hodge star operator, which assigns
            $$star(mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z) mapsto mathrm{d} x,
            quad
            star(mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x) mapsto mathrm dy quad text{and} quad
            star(mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y) mapsto mathrm d z.$$



            You can look up the exact definition of the Hodge star operator in the link above or in books. It is a map $Lambda^k mathcal M to Lambda^{m-k} mathcal M$. In our case it allows us to convert a 2-from into a 1-from.



            Then we are left with the task to convert a 1-from (or a co-tangential vector) into a tangential vector. Such a map is for example provided, if there is a scalar product on the tangential spaces, i.e. a Riemannian metric $langle cdot , cdot rangle$.



            At a point $p in mathcal M$, the map is given by
            $$T_p mathcal M to T^*_p mathcal M: mathbf v mapsto langle mathbf v, cdot rangle_p.$$



            In the case of $mathbb R^3$ the inverse of this map is given by
            $$mathrm dx mapsto mathbf e_1 = begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 end{pmatrix},
            quad
            mathrm dy mapsto mathbf e_2 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 end{pmatrix} quad text{and} quad
            mathrm dz mapsto mathbf e_3 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 end{pmatrix}.$$



            Putting those two isomorphism together yields a map $Lambda^2_p mathbb R^3 to T_p mathbb R^3$.



            Why?
            For an intuition, I always think of $mathrm{d} x wedge mathrm{d} y$ as something which measures two dimensional volumes in $mathbb R^3$ and the vector $mathbf e_1$ is somehow a vector which is needed to span up the rest or $mathbb R^3$, something like a normal vector to the surface.



            Hodge star operator



            Example



            In your case, we get the 1-from
            $$star(x mathrm dy wedge mathrm dz + y^2 mathrm dx wedge mathrm dz) = x mathrm d x - y^2 mathrm d y =: omega.$$



            Following the steps from above, the vector field is then defined as
            $$
            mathbf v = omega(mathbf e_1) mathbf e_1 + omega(mathbf e_2) mathbf e_2 + omega(mathbf e_3) mathbf e_3.
            $$



            Hence, the corresponding vector field is
            $$
            begin{pmatrix} x \ -y^2 \ 0 end{pmatrix}.
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
              – usukidoll
              Nov 17 at 21:04










            • Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
              – Steffen Plunder
              Nov 17 at 21:19






            • 1




              This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
              – Travis
              Nov 17 at 21:37






            • 1




              Thanks for the hint!
              – Steffen Plunder
              Nov 17 at 21:49






            • 1




              Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
              – Travis
              Nov 18 at 6:15













            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted






            Edit:
            The user Travis just pointed to an more general way in the comments.



            With the volume from
            $$Omega = mathbf e_1 wedge mathbf e_2 wedge mathbf e_3$$
            we get an isomorphism via
            $$
            T mathbb R^3 to Lambda^2 mathbb R^3 : mathbf v mapsto Omega( mathbf v, cdot, cdot).
            $$



            It's inverse yields exactly the same map as described below, i.e.
            $$mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z mapsto mathbf e_1,
            quad
            mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x mapsto mathbf e_2 quad text{and} quad
            mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y mapsto mathbf e_3.$$



            Old, less general reply:



            There is the Hodge star operator, which assigns
            $$star(mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z) mapsto mathrm{d} x,
            quad
            star(mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x) mapsto mathrm dy quad text{and} quad
            star(mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y) mapsto mathrm d z.$$



            You can look up the exact definition of the Hodge star operator in the link above or in books. It is a map $Lambda^k mathcal M to Lambda^{m-k} mathcal M$. In our case it allows us to convert a 2-from into a 1-from.



            Then we are left with the task to convert a 1-from (or a co-tangential vector) into a tangential vector. Such a map is for example provided, if there is a scalar product on the tangential spaces, i.e. a Riemannian metric $langle cdot , cdot rangle$.



            At a point $p in mathcal M$, the map is given by
            $$T_p mathcal M to T^*_p mathcal M: mathbf v mapsto langle mathbf v, cdot rangle_p.$$



            In the case of $mathbb R^3$ the inverse of this map is given by
            $$mathrm dx mapsto mathbf e_1 = begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 end{pmatrix},
            quad
            mathrm dy mapsto mathbf e_2 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 end{pmatrix} quad text{and} quad
            mathrm dz mapsto mathbf e_3 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 end{pmatrix}.$$



            Putting those two isomorphism together yields a map $Lambda^2_p mathbb R^3 to T_p mathbb R^3$.



            Why?
            For an intuition, I always think of $mathrm{d} x wedge mathrm{d} y$ as something which measures two dimensional volumes in $mathbb R^3$ and the vector $mathbf e_1$ is somehow a vector which is needed to span up the rest or $mathbb R^3$, something like a normal vector to the surface.



            Hodge star operator



            Example



            In your case, we get the 1-from
            $$star(x mathrm dy wedge mathrm dz + y^2 mathrm dx wedge mathrm dz) = x mathrm d x - y^2 mathrm d y =: omega.$$



            Following the steps from above, the vector field is then defined as
            $$
            mathbf v = omega(mathbf e_1) mathbf e_1 + omega(mathbf e_2) mathbf e_2 + omega(mathbf e_3) mathbf e_3.
            $$



            Hence, the corresponding vector field is
            $$
            begin{pmatrix} x \ -y^2 \ 0 end{pmatrix}.
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Edit:
            The user Travis just pointed to an more general way in the comments.



            With the volume from
            $$Omega = mathbf e_1 wedge mathbf e_2 wedge mathbf e_3$$
            we get an isomorphism via
            $$
            T mathbb R^3 to Lambda^2 mathbb R^3 : mathbf v mapsto Omega( mathbf v, cdot, cdot).
            $$



            It's inverse yields exactly the same map as described below, i.e.
            $$mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z mapsto mathbf e_1,
            quad
            mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x mapsto mathbf e_2 quad text{and} quad
            mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y mapsto mathbf e_3.$$



            Old, less general reply:



            There is the Hodge star operator, which assigns
            $$star(mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z) mapsto mathrm{d} x,
            quad
            star(mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x) mapsto mathrm dy quad text{and} quad
            star(mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y) mapsto mathrm d z.$$



            You can look up the exact definition of the Hodge star operator in the link above or in books. It is a map $Lambda^k mathcal M to Lambda^{m-k} mathcal M$. In our case it allows us to convert a 2-from into a 1-from.



            Then we are left with the task to convert a 1-from (or a co-tangential vector) into a tangential vector. Such a map is for example provided, if there is a scalar product on the tangential spaces, i.e. a Riemannian metric $langle cdot , cdot rangle$.



            At a point $p in mathcal M$, the map is given by
            $$T_p mathcal M to T^*_p mathcal M: mathbf v mapsto langle mathbf v, cdot rangle_p.$$



            In the case of $mathbb R^3$ the inverse of this map is given by
            $$mathrm dx mapsto mathbf e_1 = begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 end{pmatrix},
            quad
            mathrm dy mapsto mathbf e_2 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 end{pmatrix} quad text{and} quad
            mathrm dz mapsto mathbf e_3 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 end{pmatrix}.$$



            Putting those two isomorphism together yields a map $Lambda^2_p mathbb R^3 to T_p mathbb R^3$.



            Why?
            For an intuition, I always think of $mathrm{d} x wedge mathrm{d} y$ as something which measures two dimensional volumes in $mathbb R^3$ and the vector $mathbf e_1$ is somehow a vector which is needed to span up the rest or $mathbb R^3$, something like a normal vector to the surface.



            Hodge star operator



            Example



            In your case, we get the 1-from
            $$star(x mathrm dy wedge mathrm dz + y^2 mathrm dx wedge mathrm dz) = x mathrm d x - y^2 mathrm d y =: omega.$$



            Following the steps from above, the vector field is then defined as
            $$
            mathbf v = omega(mathbf e_1) mathbf e_1 + omega(mathbf e_2) mathbf e_2 + omega(mathbf e_3) mathbf e_3.
            $$



            Hence, the corresponding vector field is
            $$
            begin{pmatrix} x \ -y^2 \ 0 end{pmatrix}.
            $$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Nov 17 at 21:58

























            answered Nov 17 at 21:00









            Steffen Plunder

            498211




            498211












            • Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
              – usukidoll
              Nov 17 at 21:04










            • Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
              – Steffen Plunder
              Nov 17 at 21:19






            • 1




              This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
              – Travis
              Nov 17 at 21:37






            • 1




              Thanks for the hint!
              – Steffen Plunder
              Nov 17 at 21:49






            • 1




              Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
              – Travis
              Nov 18 at 6:15


















            • Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
              – usukidoll
              Nov 17 at 21:04










            • Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
              – Steffen Plunder
              Nov 17 at 21:19






            • 1




              This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
              – Travis
              Nov 17 at 21:37






            • 1




              Thanks for the hint!
              – Steffen Plunder
              Nov 17 at 21:49






            • 1




              Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
              – Travis
              Nov 18 at 6:15
















            Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
            – usukidoll
            Nov 17 at 21:04




            Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
            – usukidoll
            Nov 17 at 21:04












            Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
            – Steffen Plunder
            Nov 17 at 21:19




            Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
            – Steffen Plunder
            Nov 17 at 21:19




            1




            1




            This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
            – Travis
            Nov 17 at 21:37




            This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
            – Travis
            Nov 17 at 21:37




            1




            1




            Thanks for the hint!
            – Steffen Plunder
            Nov 17 at 21:49




            Thanks for the hint!
            – Steffen Plunder
            Nov 17 at 21:49




            1




            1




            Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
            – Travis
            Nov 18 at 6:15




            Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
            – Travis
            Nov 18 at 6:15










            up vote
            1
            down vote













            While the question is about vector fields, the map $phi : Gamma(bigwedge^2 T^* Bbb R^3) stackrel{cong}{to} Gamma(bigwedge^1 T Bbb R^3) = Gamma(T Bbb R^3)$ is tensorial, so it suffices to describe it at a single point, say, $phi_0 : Lambda^2 T^*_0 Bbb R^3 to T_0 Bbb R^3$. Using the canonical identification $T_a Bbb R^3 cong Bbb R^3$ and suppressing the subscript, we'll write $$phi : textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*} stackrel{cong}{to} textstyle{bigwedge^1 Bbb R^3} = Bbb R^3 .$$



            First, since this map is linear, so as with any linear map the coefficients come along for the ride:
            $$phi(x ,dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz) = x phi(dy wedge dz) + y^2 phi(dx wedge dz) .$$



            We get such a map from any volume form, that is, any nonvanishing top form $omega in bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$. With this in hand, it's easier to describe the inverse, which is just interior multiplication,



            $$phi^{-1} : Bbb R^3 to textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*}, qquad X mapsto iota_X omega = omega(X,,cdot,,,cdot,) .$$



            Since it's not stated otherwise, we'll take the standard volume form, $dx wedge dy wedge dz$. So, for example, $$phi^{-1}(partial_x) = iota_{partial_x} (dx wedge dy wedge dz) = dy wedge dz .$$ Thus,
            $$boxed{phi(dy wedge dz) = partial_x} ,$$
            and by symmetry cyclic permutation gives that image under $phi$ of the other two basis elements.



            We can also write down the inverse in an invariant (i.e., coordinate-independent) way: Since the space $bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$ is $1$-dimensional, there is a unique element $Omega$ of its dual, $bigwedge^3 Bbb R^3$, that satisfies $omega(Omega) = 3! = 6$. Here, the notation on the l.h.s. just means the full contraction of $omega$ and $Omega$.) Then, checking on a basis (again, by symmetry, it's enough to check a single basis element), we find that
            $$phi(mu) = frac{1}{2} Omega(mu,,cdot,),$$
            where the notation on the r.h.s. just means that we contract $mu$ with the first two slots of $Omega$. Computing gives in our case that $$Omega = partial_x wedge partial_y wedge partial_z .$$






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              1
              down vote













              While the question is about vector fields, the map $phi : Gamma(bigwedge^2 T^* Bbb R^3) stackrel{cong}{to} Gamma(bigwedge^1 T Bbb R^3) = Gamma(T Bbb R^3)$ is tensorial, so it suffices to describe it at a single point, say, $phi_0 : Lambda^2 T^*_0 Bbb R^3 to T_0 Bbb R^3$. Using the canonical identification $T_a Bbb R^3 cong Bbb R^3$ and suppressing the subscript, we'll write $$phi : textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*} stackrel{cong}{to} textstyle{bigwedge^1 Bbb R^3} = Bbb R^3 .$$



              First, since this map is linear, so as with any linear map the coefficients come along for the ride:
              $$phi(x ,dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz) = x phi(dy wedge dz) + y^2 phi(dx wedge dz) .$$



              We get such a map from any volume form, that is, any nonvanishing top form $omega in bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$. With this in hand, it's easier to describe the inverse, which is just interior multiplication,



              $$phi^{-1} : Bbb R^3 to textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*}, qquad X mapsto iota_X omega = omega(X,,cdot,,,cdot,) .$$



              Since it's not stated otherwise, we'll take the standard volume form, $dx wedge dy wedge dz$. So, for example, $$phi^{-1}(partial_x) = iota_{partial_x} (dx wedge dy wedge dz) = dy wedge dz .$$ Thus,
              $$boxed{phi(dy wedge dz) = partial_x} ,$$
              and by symmetry cyclic permutation gives that image under $phi$ of the other two basis elements.



              We can also write down the inverse in an invariant (i.e., coordinate-independent) way: Since the space $bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$ is $1$-dimensional, there is a unique element $Omega$ of its dual, $bigwedge^3 Bbb R^3$, that satisfies $omega(Omega) = 3! = 6$. Here, the notation on the l.h.s. just means the full contraction of $omega$ and $Omega$.) Then, checking on a basis (again, by symmetry, it's enough to check a single basis element), we find that
              $$phi(mu) = frac{1}{2} Omega(mu,,cdot,),$$
              where the notation on the r.h.s. just means that we contract $mu$ with the first two slots of $Omega$. Computing gives in our case that $$Omega = partial_x wedge partial_y wedge partial_z .$$






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote










                up vote
                1
                down vote









                While the question is about vector fields, the map $phi : Gamma(bigwedge^2 T^* Bbb R^3) stackrel{cong}{to} Gamma(bigwedge^1 T Bbb R^3) = Gamma(T Bbb R^3)$ is tensorial, so it suffices to describe it at a single point, say, $phi_0 : Lambda^2 T^*_0 Bbb R^3 to T_0 Bbb R^3$. Using the canonical identification $T_a Bbb R^3 cong Bbb R^3$ and suppressing the subscript, we'll write $$phi : textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*} stackrel{cong}{to} textstyle{bigwedge^1 Bbb R^3} = Bbb R^3 .$$



                First, since this map is linear, so as with any linear map the coefficients come along for the ride:
                $$phi(x ,dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz) = x phi(dy wedge dz) + y^2 phi(dx wedge dz) .$$



                We get such a map from any volume form, that is, any nonvanishing top form $omega in bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$. With this in hand, it's easier to describe the inverse, which is just interior multiplication,



                $$phi^{-1} : Bbb R^3 to textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*}, qquad X mapsto iota_X omega = omega(X,,cdot,,,cdot,) .$$



                Since it's not stated otherwise, we'll take the standard volume form, $dx wedge dy wedge dz$. So, for example, $$phi^{-1}(partial_x) = iota_{partial_x} (dx wedge dy wedge dz) = dy wedge dz .$$ Thus,
                $$boxed{phi(dy wedge dz) = partial_x} ,$$
                and by symmetry cyclic permutation gives that image under $phi$ of the other two basis elements.



                We can also write down the inverse in an invariant (i.e., coordinate-independent) way: Since the space $bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$ is $1$-dimensional, there is a unique element $Omega$ of its dual, $bigwedge^3 Bbb R^3$, that satisfies $omega(Omega) = 3! = 6$. Here, the notation on the l.h.s. just means the full contraction of $omega$ and $Omega$.) Then, checking on a basis (again, by symmetry, it's enough to check a single basis element), we find that
                $$phi(mu) = frac{1}{2} Omega(mu,,cdot,),$$
                where the notation on the r.h.s. just means that we contract $mu$ with the first two slots of $Omega$. Computing gives in our case that $$Omega = partial_x wedge partial_y wedge partial_z .$$






                share|cite|improve this answer














                While the question is about vector fields, the map $phi : Gamma(bigwedge^2 T^* Bbb R^3) stackrel{cong}{to} Gamma(bigwedge^1 T Bbb R^3) = Gamma(T Bbb R^3)$ is tensorial, so it suffices to describe it at a single point, say, $phi_0 : Lambda^2 T^*_0 Bbb R^3 to T_0 Bbb R^3$. Using the canonical identification $T_a Bbb R^3 cong Bbb R^3$ and suppressing the subscript, we'll write $$phi : textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*} stackrel{cong}{to} textstyle{bigwedge^1 Bbb R^3} = Bbb R^3 .$$



                First, since this map is linear, so as with any linear map the coefficients come along for the ride:
                $$phi(x ,dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz) = x phi(dy wedge dz) + y^2 phi(dx wedge dz) .$$



                We get such a map from any volume form, that is, any nonvanishing top form $omega in bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$. With this in hand, it's easier to describe the inverse, which is just interior multiplication,



                $$phi^{-1} : Bbb R^3 to textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*}, qquad X mapsto iota_X omega = omega(X,,cdot,,,cdot,) .$$



                Since it's not stated otherwise, we'll take the standard volume form, $dx wedge dy wedge dz$. So, for example, $$phi^{-1}(partial_x) = iota_{partial_x} (dx wedge dy wedge dz) = dy wedge dz .$$ Thus,
                $$boxed{phi(dy wedge dz) = partial_x} ,$$
                and by symmetry cyclic permutation gives that image under $phi$ of the other two basis elements.



                We can also write down the inverse in an invariant (i.e., coordinate-independent) way: Since the space $bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$ is $1$-dimensional, there is a unique element $Omega$ of its dual, $bigwedge^3 Bbb R^3$, that satisfies $omega(Omega) = 3! = 6$. Here, the notation on the l.h.s. just means the full contraction of $omega$ and $Omega$.) Then, checking on a basis (again, by symmetry, it's enough to check a single basis element), we find that
                $$phi(mu) = frac{1}{2} Omega(mu,,cdot,),$$
                where the notation on the r.h.s. just means that we contract $mu$ with the first two slots of $Omega$. Computing gives in our case that $$Omega = partial_x wedge partial_y wedge partial_z .$$







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Nov 18 at 9:46

























                answered Nov 18 at 6:10









                Travis

                59k766144




                59k766144






























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