Converting a 2-form on $mathbb{R}^{3}$ to a vector field on $mathbb{R}^{3}$
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
How do I convert a 2-form $x dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz$ on $mathbb{R^{3}}$ to a vector field on $mathbb{R^{3}}$?
Attempt:
Suppose we have two vectors fields a and b in $mathbb{R^{3}}$ such that $a=(a_{1},a_{2},a_{3})$ and $b=(b_{1},b_{2},b_{3})$ .
Now,
$(dy wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{2} & a_{3} \ b_{2} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} = a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}$
$(dx wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{1} & a_{3} \ b_{1} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} =a_{1}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{1}$
I ended up getting
$x (a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}) + y^2 (a_{1}b_{3}-a{3}b_{1})$
How does the $x$ and the $y^{2}$ convert?
vector-analysis
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
How do I convert a 2-form $x dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz$ on $mathbb{R^{3}}$ to a vector field on $mathbb{R^{3}}$?
Attempt:
Suppose we have two vectors fields a and b in $mathbb{R^{3}}$ such that $a=(a_{1},a_{2},a_{3})$ and $b=(b_{1},b_{2},b_{3})$ .
Now,
$(dy wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{2} & a_{3} \ b_{2} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} = a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}$
$(dx wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{1} & a_{3} \ b_{1} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} =a_{1}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{1}$
I ended up getting
$x (a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}) + y^2 (a_{1}b_{3}-a{3}b_{1})$
How does the $x$ and the $y^{2}$ convert?
vector-analysis
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
How do I convert a 2-form $x dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz$ on $mathbb{R^{3}}$ to a vector field on $mathbb{R^{3}}$?
Attempt:
Suppose we have two vectors fields a and b in $mathbb{R^{3}}$ such that $a=(a_{1},a_{2},a_{3})$ and $b=(b_{1},b_{2},b_{3})$ .
Now,
$(dy wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{2} & a_{3} \ b_{2} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} = a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}$
$(dx wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{1} & a_{3} \ b_{1} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} =a_{1}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{1}$
I ended up getting
$x (a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}) + y^2 (a_{1}b_{3}-a{3}b_{1})$
How does the $x$ and the $y^{2}$ convert?
vector-analysis
How do I convert a 2-form $x dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz$ on $mathbb{R^{3}}$ to a vector field on $mathbb{R^{3}}$?
Attempt:
Suppose we have two vectors fields a and b in $mathbb{R^{3}}$ such that $a=(a_{1},a_{2},a_{3})$ and $b=(b_{1},b_{2},b_{3})$ .
Now,
$(dy wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{2} & a_{3} \ b_{2} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} = a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}$
$(dx wedge dz)(a,b) = det begin{pmatrix} a_{1} & a_{3} \ b_{1} & b_{3} end{pmatrix} =a_{1}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{1}$
I ended up getting
$x (a_{2}b_{3}-a_{3}b_{2}) + y^2 (a_{1}b_{3}-a{3}b_{1})$
How does the $x$ and the $y^{2}$ convert?
vector-analysis
vector-analysis
asked Nov 17 at 20:16
usukidoll
1,1621032
1,1621032
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Edit:
The user Travis just pointed to an more general way in the comments.
With the volume from
$$Omega = mathbf e_1 wedge mathbf e_2 wedge mathbf e_3$$
we get an isomorphism via
$$
T mathbb R^3 to Lambda^2 mathbb R^3 : mathbf v mapsto Omega( mathbf v, cdot, cdot).
$$
It's inverse yields exactly the same map as described below, i.e.
$$mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z mapsto mathbf e_1,
quad
mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x mapsto mathbf e_2 quad text{and} quad
mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y mapsto mathbf e_3.$$
Old, less general reply:
There is the Hodge star operator, which assigns
$$star(mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z) mapsto mathrm{d} x,
quad
star(mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x) mapsto mathrm dy quad text{and} quad
star(mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y) mapsto mathrm d z.$$
You can look up the exact definition of the Hodge star operator in the link above or in books. It is a map $Lambda^k mathcal M to Lambda^{m-k} mathcal M$. In our case it allows us to convert a 2-from into a 1-from.
Then we are left with the task to convert a 1-from (or a co-tangential vector) into a tangential vector. Such a map is for example provided, if there is a scalar product on the tangential spaces, i.e. a Riemannian metric $langle cdot , cdot rangle$.
At a point $p in mathcal M$, the map is given by
$$T_p mathcal M to T^*_p mathcal M: mathbf v mapsto langle mathbf v, cdot rangle_p.$$
In the case of $mathbb R^3$ the inverse of this map is given by
$$mathrm dx mapsto mathbf e_1 = begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 end{pmatrix},
quad
mathrm dy mapsto mathbf e_2 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 end{pmatrix} quad text{and} quad
mathrm dz mapsto mathbf e_3 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 end{pmatrix}.$$
Putting those two isomorphism together yields a map $Lambda^2_p mathbb R^3 to T_p mathbb R^3$.
Why?
For an intuition, I always think of $mathrm{d} x wedge mathrm{d} y$ as something which measures two dimensional volumes in $mathbb R^3$ and the vector $mathbf e_1$ is somehow a vector which is needed to span up the rest or $mathbb R^3$, something like a normal vector to the surface.
Example
In your case, we get the 1-from
$$star(x mathrm dy wedge mathrm dz + y^2 mathrm dx wedge mathrm dz) = x mathrm d x - y^2 mathrm d y =: omega.$$
Following the steps from above, the vector field is then defined as
$$
mathbf v = omega(mathbf e_1) mathbf e_1 + omega(mathbf e_2) mathbf e_2 + omega(mathbf e_3) mathbf e_3.
$$
Hence, the corresponding vector field is
$$
begin{pmatrix} x \ -y^2 \ 0 end{pmatrix}.
$$
Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
– usukidoll
Nov 17 at 21:04
Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:19
1
This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
– Travis
Nov 17 at 21:37
1
Thanks for the hint!
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:49
1
Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
– Travis
Nov 18 at 6:15
|
show 4 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
While the question is about vector fields, the map $phi : Gamma(bigwedge^2 T^* Bbb R^3) stackrel{cong}{to} Gamma(bigwedge^1 T Bbb R^3) = Gamma(T Bbb R^3)$ is tensorial, so it suffices to describe it at a single point, say, $phi_0 : Lambda^2 T^*_0 Bbb R^3 to T_0 Bbb R^3$. Using the canonical identification $T_a Bbb R^3 cong Bbb R^3$ and suppressing the subscript, we'll write $$phi : textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*} stackrel{cong}{to} textstyle{bigwedge^1 Bbb R^3} = Bbb R^3 .$$
First, since this map is linear, so as with any linear map the coefficients come along for the ride:
$$phi(x ,dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz) = x phi(dy wedge dz) + y^2 phi(dx wedge dz) .$$
We get such a map from any volume form, that is, any nonvanishing top form $omega in bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$. With this in hand, it's easier to describe the inverse, which is just interior multiplication,
$$phi^{-1} : Bbb R^3 to textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*}, qquad X mapsto iota_X omega = omega(X,,cdot,,,cdot,) .$$
Since it's not stated otherwise, we'll take the standard volume form, $dx wedge dy wedge dz$. So, for example, $$phi^{-1}(partial_x) = iota_{partial_x} (dx wedge dy wedge dz) = dy wedge dz .$$ Thus,
$$boxed{phi(dy wedge dz) = partial_x} ,$$
and by symmetry cyclic permutation gives that image under $phi$ of the other two basis elements.
We can also write down the inverse in an invariant (i.e., coordinate-independent) way: Since the space $bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$ is $1$-dimensional, there is a unique element $Omega$ of its dual, $bigwedge^3 Bbb R^3$, that satisfies $omega(Omega) = 3! = 6$. Here, the notation on the l.h.s. just means the full contraction of $omega$ and $Omega$.) Then, checking on a basis (again, by symmetry, it's enough to check a single basis element), we find that
$$phi(mu) = frac{1}{2} Omega(mu,,cdot,),$$
where the notation on the r.h.s. just means that we contract $mu$ with the first two slots of $Omega$. Computing gives in our case that $$Omega = partial_x wedge partial_y wedge partial_z .$$
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Edit:
The user Travis just pointed to an more general way in the comments.
With the volume from
$$Omega = mathbf e_1 wedge mathbf e_2 wedge mathbf e_3$$
we get an isomorphism via
$$
T mathbb R^3 to Lambda^2 mathbb R^3 : mathbf v mapsto Omega( mathbf v, cdot, cdot).
$$
It's inverse yields exactly the same map as described below, i.e.
$$mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z mapsto mathbf e_1,
quad
mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x mapsto mathbf e_2 quad text{and} quad
mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y mapsto mathbf e_3.$$
Old, less general reply:
There is the Hodge star operator, which assigns
$$star(mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z) mapsto mathrm{d} x,
quad
star(mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x) mapsto mathrm dy quad text{and} quad
star(mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y) mapsto mathrm d z.$$
You can look up the exact definition of the Hodge star operator in the link above or in books. It is a map $Lambda^k mathcal M to Lambda^{m-k} mathcal M$. In our case it allows us to convert a 2-from into a 1-from.
Then we are left with the task to convert a 1-from (or a co-tangential vector) into a tangential vector. Such a map is for example provided, if there is a scalar product on the tangential spaces, i.e. a Riemannian metric $langle cdot , cdot rangle$.
At a point $p in mathcal M$, the map is given by
$$T_p mathcal M to T^*_p mathcal M: mathbf v mapsto langle mathbf v, cdot rangle_p.$$
In the case of $mathbb R^3$ the inverse of this map is given by
$$mathrm dx mapsto mathbf e_1 = begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 end{pmatrix},
quad
mathrm dy mapsto mathbf e_2 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 end{pmatrix} quad text{and} quad
mathrm dz mapsto mathbf e_3 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 end{pmatrix}.$$
Putting those two isomorphism together yields a map $Lambda^2_p mathbb R^3 to T_p mathbb R^3$.
Why?
For an intuition, I always think of $mathrm{d} x wedge mathrm{d} y$ as something which measures two dimensional volumes in $mathbb R^3$ and the vector $mathbf e_1$ is somehow a vector which is needed to span up the rest or $mathbb R^3$, something like a normal vector to the surface.
Example
In your case, we get the 1-from
$$star(x mathrm dy wedge mathrm dz + y^2 mathrm dx wedge mathrm dz) = x mathrm d x - y^2 mathrm d y =: omega.$$
Following the steps from above, the vector field is then defined as
$$
mathbf v = omega(mathbf e_1) mathbf e_1 + omega(mathbf e_2) mathbf e_2 + omega(mathbf e_3) mathbf e_3.
$$
Hence, the corresponding vector field is
$$
begin{pmatrix} x \ -y^2 \ 0 end{pmatrix}.
$$
Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
– usukidoll
Nov 17 at 21:04
Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:19
1
This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
– Travis
Nov 17 at 21:37
1
Thanks for the hint!
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:49
1
Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
– Travis
Nov 18 at 6:15
|
show 4 more comments
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Edit:
The user Travis just pointed to an more general way in the comments.
With the volume from
$$Omega = mathbf e_1 wedge mathbf e_2 wedge mathbf e_3$$
we get an isomorphism via
$$
T mathbb R^3 to Lambda^2 mathbb R^3 : mathbf v mapsto Omega( mathbf v, cdot, cdot).
$$
It's inverse yields exactly the same map as described below, i.e.
$$mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z mapsto mathbf e_1,
quad
mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x mapsto mathbf e_2 quad text{and} quad
mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y mapsto mathbf e_3.$$
Old, less general reply:
There is the Hodge star operator, which assigns
$$star(mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z) mapsto mathrm{d} x,
quad
star(mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x) mapsto mathrm dy quad text{and} quad
star(mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y) mapsto mathrm d z.$$
You can look up the exact definition of the Hodge star operator in the link above or in books. It is a map $Lambda^k mathcal M to Lambda^{m-k} mathcal M$. In our case it allows us to convert a 2-from into a 1-from.
Then we are left with the task to convert a 1-from (or a co-tangential vector) into a tangential vector. Such a map is for example provided, if there is a scalar product on the tangential spaces, i.e. a Riemannian metric $langle cdot , cdot rangle$.
At a point $p in mathcal M$, the map is given by
$$T_p mathcal M to T^*_p mathcal M: mathbf v mapsto langle mathbf v, cdot rangle_p.$$
In the case of $mathbb R^3$ the inverse of this map is given by
$$mathrm dx mapsto mathbf e_1 = begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 end{pmatrix},
quad
mathrm dy mapsto mathbf e_2 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 end{pmatrix} quad text{and} quad
mathrm dz mapsto mathbf e_3 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 end{pmatrix}.$$
Putting those two isomorphism together yields a map $Lambda^2_p mathbb R^3 to T_p mathbb R^3$.
Why?
For an intuition, I always think of $mathrm{d} x wedge mathrm{d} y$ as something which measures two dimensional volumes in $mathbb R^3$ and the vector $mathbf e_1$ is somehow a vector which is needed to span up the rest or $mathbb R^3$, something like a normal vector to the surface.
Example
In your case, we get the 1-from
$$star(x mathrm dy wedge mathrm dz + y^2 mathrm dx wedge mathrm dz) = x mathrm d x - y^2 mathrm d y =: omega.$$
Following the steps from above, the vector field is then defined as
$$
mathbf v = omega(mathbf e_1) mathbf e_1 + omega(mathbf e_2) mathbf e_2 + omega(mathbf e_3) mathbf e_3.
$$
Hence, the corresponding vector field is
$$
begin{pmatrix} x \ -y^2 \ 0 end{pmatrix}.
$$
Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
– usukidoll
Nov 17 at 21:04
Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:19
1
This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
– Travis
Nov 17 at 21:37
1
Thanks for the hint!
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:49
1
Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
– Travis
Nov 18 at 6:15
|
show 4 more comments
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Edit:
The user Travis just pointed to an more general way in the comments.
With the volume from
$$Omega = mathbf e_1 wedge mathbf e_2 wedge mathbf e_3$$
we get an isomorphism via
$$
T mathbb R^3 to Lambda^2 mathbb R^3 : mathbf v mapsto Omega( mathbf v, cdot, cdot).
$$
It's inverse yields exactly the same map as described below, i.e.
$$mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z mapsto mathbf e_1,
quad
mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x mapsto mathbf e_2 quad text{and} quad
mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y mapsto mathbf e_3.$$
Old, less general reply:
There is the Hodge star operator, which assigns
$$star(mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z) mapsto mathrm{d} x,
quad
star(mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x) mapsto mathrm dy quad text{and} quad
star(mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y) mapsto mathrm d z.$$
You can look up the exact definition of the Hodge star operator in the link above or in books. It is a map $Lambda^k mathcal M to Lambda^{m-k} mathcal M$. In our case it allows us to convert a 2-from into a 1-from.
Then we are left with the task to convert a 1-from (or a co-tangential vector) into a tangential vector. Such a map is for example provided, if there is a scalar product on the tangential spaces, i.e. a Riemannian metric $langle cdot , cdot rangle$.
At a point $p in mathcal M$, the map is given by
$$T_p mathcal M to T^*_p mathcal M: mathbf v mapsto langle mathbf v, cdot rangle_p.$$
In the case of $mathbb R^3$ the inverse of this map is given by
$$mathrm dx mapsto mathbf e_1 = begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 end{pmatrix},
quad
mathrm dy mapsto mathbf e_2 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 end{pmatrix} quad text{and} quad
mathrm dz mapsto mathbf e_3 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 end{pmatrix}.$$
Putting those two isomorphism together yields a map $Lambda^2_p mathbb R^3 to T_p mathbb R^3$.
Why?
For an intuition, I always think of $mathrm{d} x wedge mathrm{d} y$ as something which measures two dimensional volumes in $mathbb R^3$ and the vector $mathbf e_1$ is somehow a vector which is needed to span up the rest or $mathbb R^3$, something like a normal vector to the surface.
Example
In your case, we get the 1-from
$$star(x mathrm dy wedge mathrm dz + y^2 mathrm dx wedge mathrm dz) = x mathrm d x - y^2 mathrm d y =: omega.$$
Following the steps from above, the vector field is then defined as
$$
mathbf v = omega(mathbf e_1) mathbf e_1 + omega(mathbf e_2) mathbf e_2 + omega(mathbf e_3) mathbf e_3.
$$
Hence, the corresponding vector field is
$$
begin{pmatrix} x \ -y^2 \ 0 end{pmatrix}.
$$
Edit:
The user Travis just pointed to an more general way in the comments.
With the volume from
$$Omega = mathbf e_1 wedge mathbf e_2 wedge mathbf e_3$$
we get an isomorphism via
$$
T mathbb R^3 to Lambda^2 mathbb R^3 : mathbf v mapsto Omega( mathbf v, cdot, cdot).
$$
It's inverse yields exactly the same map as described below, i.e.
$$mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z mapsto mathbf e_1,
quad
mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x mapsto mathbf e_2 quad text{and} quad
mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y mapsto mathbf e_3.$$
Old, less general reply:
There is the Hodge star operator, which assigns
$$star(mathrm{d}y wedge mathrm{d}z) mapsto mathrm{d} x,
quad
star(mathrm{d}z wedge mathrm{d} x) mapsto mathrm dy quad text{and} quad
star(mathrm{d}x wedge mathrm{d} y) mapsto mathrm d z.$$
You can look up the exact definition of the Hodge star operator in the link above or in books. It is a map $Lambda^k mathcal M to Lambda^{m-k} mathcal M$. In our case it allows us to convert a 2-from into a 1-from.
Then we are left with the task to convert a 1-from (or a co-tangential vector) into a tangential vector. Such a map is for example provided, if there is a scalar product on the tangential spaces, i.e. a Riemannian metric $langle cdot , cdot rangle$.
At a point $p in mathcal M$, the map is given by
$$T_p mathcal M to T^*_p mathcal M: mathbf v mapsto langle mathbf v, cdot rangle_p.$$
In the case of $mathbb R^3$ the inverse of this map is given by
$$mathrm dx mapsto mathbf e_1 = begin{pmatrix} 1 \ 0 \ 0 end{pmatrix},
quad
mathrm dy mapsto mathbf e_2 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 1 \ 0 end{pmatrix} quad text{and} quad
mathrm dz mapsto mathbf e_3 = begin{pmatrix} 0 \ 0 \ 1 end{pmatrix}.$$
Putting those two isomorphism together yields a map $Lambda^2_p mathbb R^3 to T_p mathbb R^3$.
Why?
For an intuition, I always think of $mathrm{d} x wedge mathrm{d} y$ as something which measures two dimensional volumes in $mathbb R^3$ and the vector $mathbf e_1$ is somehow a vector which is needed to span up the rest or $mathbb R^3$, something like a normal vector to the surface.
Example
In your case, we get the 1-from
$$star(x mathrm dy wedge mathrm dz + y^2 mathrm dx wedge mathrm dz) = x mathrm d x - y^2 mathrm d y =: omega.$$
Following the steps from above, the vector field is then defined as
$$
mathbf v = omega(mathbf e_1) mathbf e_1 + omega(mathbf e_2) mathbf e_2 + omega(mathbf e_3) mathbf e_3.
$$
Hence, the corresponding vector field is
$$
begin{pmatrix} x \ -y^2 \ 0 end{pmatrix}.
$$
edited Nov 17 at 21:58
answered Nov 17 at 21:00
Steffen Plunder
498211
498211
Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
– usukidoll
Nov 17 at 21:04
Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:19
1
This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
– Travis
Nov 17 at 21:37
1
Thanks for the hint!
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:49
1
Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
– Travis
Nov 18 at 6:15
|
show 4 more comments
Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
– usukidoll
Nov 17 at 21:04
Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:19
1
This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
– Travis
Nov 17 at 21:37
1
Thanks for the hint!
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:49
1
Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
– Travis
Nov 18 at 6:15
Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
– usukidoll
Nov 17 at 21:04
Ooooohhhhh so first I have to convert a 2 -form into a 1-form and then use whatever I did to turn it into a vector field on R^3?
– usukidoll
Nov 17 at 21:04
Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:19
Maybe there is also another way. But yes, what you did is the same like the second step. (Notice, that $star$ is a linear map, hence after you get used to it, you can read of the vector field, directly from the 2-from, if the two form is provided in terms of $mathrm dxwedge mathrm dy$, $mathrm dywedge mathrm dz$ and $mathrm dzwedge mathrm dx$.
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:19
1
1
This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
– Travis
Nov 17 at 21:37
This is correct, but NB the identification $Lambda^2 (Bbb R^3)^* stackrel{cong}{to} Bbb R^3$ doesn't require an inner product on $Bbb R^3$---you only need a volume form, or dually, a volume multivector $Omega in Lambda^3 Bbb R^3$, which up to a constant is just ${bf e}_1 wedge {bf e}_2 wedge {bf e}_3$. Then (up to a constant depending on our convention), the map is just contraction with $Omega$. This gives, e.g., $dx wedge dy leftrightarrow e_3$.
– Travis
Nov 17 at 21:37
1
1
Thanks for the hint!
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:49
Thanks for the hint!
– Steffen Plunder
Nov 17 at 21:49
1
1
Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
– Travis
Nov 18 at 6:15
Yes, that's fine, of course. I've written my own answer now---not because I think the approach I suggest is necessarily better, but just to give some details of the construction that just uses a volume form.
– Travis
Nov 18 at 6:15
|
show 4 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
While the question is about vector fields, the map $phi : Gamma(bigwedge^2 T^* Bbb R^3) stackrel{cong}{to} Gamma(bigwedge^1 T Bbb R^3) = Gamma(T Bbb R^3)$ is tensorial, so it suffices to describe it at a single point, say, $phi_0 : Lambda^2 T^*_0 Bbb R^3 to T_0 Bbb R^3$. Using the canonical identification $T_a Bbb R^3 cong Bbb R^3$ and suppressing the subscript, we'll write $$phi : textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*} stackrel{cong}{to} textstyle{bigwedge^1 Bbb R^3} = Bbb R^3 .$$
First, since this map is linear, so as with any linear map the coefficients come along for the ride:
$$phi(x ,dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz) = x phi(dy wedge dz) + y^2 phi(dx wedge dz) .$$
We get such a map from any volume form, that is, any nonvanishing top form $omega in bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$. With this in hand, it's easier to describe the inverse, which is just interior multiplication,
$$phi^{-1} : Bbb R^3 to textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*}, qquad X mapsto iota_X omega = omega(X,,cdot,,,cdot,) .$$
Since it's not stated otherwise, we'll take the standard volume form, $dx wedge dy wedge dz$. So, for example, $$phi^{-1}(partial_x) = iota_{partial_x} (dx wedge dy wedge dz) = dy wedge dz .$$ Thus,
$$boxed{phi(dy wedge dz) = partial_x} ,$$
and by symmetry cyclic permutation gives that image under $phi$ of the other two basis elements.
We can also write down the inverse in an invariant (i.e., coordinate-independent) way: Since the space $bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$ is $1$-dimensional, there is a unique element $Omega$ of its dual, $bigwedge^3 Bbb R^3$, that satisfies $omega(Omega) = 3! = 6$. Here, the notation on the l.h.s. just means the full contraction of $omega$ and $Omega$.) Then, checking on a basis (again, by symmetry, it's enough to check a single basis element), we find that
$$phi(mu) = frac{1}{2} Omega(mu,,cdot,),$$
where the notation on the r.h.s. just means that we contract $mu$ with the first two slots of $Omega$. Computing gives in our case that $$Omega = partial_x wedge partial_y wedge partial_z .$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
While the question is about vector fields, the map $phi : Gamma(bigwedge^2 T^* Bbb R^3) stackrel{cong}{to} Gamma(bigwedge^1 T Bbb R^3) = Gamma(T Bbb R^3)$ is tensorial, so it suffices to describe it at a single point, say, $phi_0 : Lambda^2 T^*_0 Bbb R^3 to T_0 Bbb R^3$. Using the canonical identification $T_a Bbb R^3 cong Bbb R^3$ and suppressing the subscript, we'll write $$phi : textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*} stackrel{cong}{to} textstyle{bigwedge^1 Bbb R^3} = Bbb R^3 .$$
First, since this map is linear, so as with any linear map the coefficients come along for the ride:
$$phi(x ,dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz) = x phi(dy wedge dz) + y^2 phi(dx wedge dz) .$$
We get such a map from any volume form, that is, any nonvanishing top form $omega in bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$. With this in hand, it's easier to describe the inverse, which is just interior multiplication,
$$phi^{-1} : Bbb R^3 to textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*}, qquad X mapsto iota_X omega = omega(X,,cdot,,,cdot,) .$$
Since it's not stated otherwise, we'll take the standard volume form, $dx wedge dy wedge dz$. So, for example, $$phi^{-1}(partial_x) = iota_{partial_x} (dx wedge dy wedge dz) = dy wedge dz .$$ Thus,
$$boxed{phi(dy wedge dz) = partial_x} ,$$
and by symmetry cyclic permutation gives that image under $phi$ of the other two basis elements.
We can also write down the inverse in an invariant (i.e., coordinate-independent) way: Since the space $bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$ is $1$-dimensional, there is a unique element $Omega$ of its dual, $bigwedge^3 Bbb R^3$, that satisfies $omega(Omega) = 3! = 6$. Here, the notation on the l.h.s. just means the full contraction of $omega$ and $Omega$.) Then, checking on a basis (again, by symmetry, it's enough to check a single basis element), we find that
$$phi(mu) = frac{1}{2} Omega(mu,,cdot,),$$
where the notation on the r.h.s. just means that we contract $mu$ with the first two slots of $Omega$. Computing gives in our case that $$Omega = partial_x wedge partial_y wedge partial_z .$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
While the question is about vector fields, the map $phi : Gamma(bigwedge^2 T^* Bbb R^3) stackrel{cong}{to} Gamma(bigwedge^1 T Bbb R^3) = Gamma(T Bbb R^3)$ is tensorial, so it suffices to describe it at a single point, say, $phi_0 : Lambda^2 T^*_0 Bbb R^3 to T_0 Bbb R^3$. Using the canonical identification $T_a Bbb R^3 cong Bbb R^3$ and suppressing the subscript, we'll write $$phi : textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*} stackrel{cong}{to} textstyle{bigwedge^1 Bbb R^3} = Bbb R^3 .$$
First, since this map is linear, so as with any linear map the coefficients come along for the ride:
$$phi(x ,dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz) = x phi(dy wedge dz) + y^2 phi(dx wedge dz) .$$
We get such a map from any volume form, that is, any nonvanishing top form $omega in bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$. With this in hand, it's easier to describe the inverse, which is just interior multiplication,
$$phi^{-1} : Bbb R^3 to textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*}, qquad X mapsto iota_X omega = omega(X,,cdot,,,cdot,) .$$
Since it's not stated otherwise, we'll take the standard volume form, $dx wedge dy wedge dz$. So, for example, $$phi^{-1}(partial_x) = iota_{partial_x} (dx wedge dy wedge dz) = dy wedge dz .$$ Thus,
$$boxed{phi(dy wedge dz) = partial_x} ,$$
and by symmetry cyclic permutation gives that image under $phi$ of the other two basis elements.
We can also write down the inverse in an invariant (i.e., coordinate-independent) way: Since the space $bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$ is $1$-dimensional, there is a unique element $Omega$ of its dual, $bigwedge^3 Bbb R^3$, that satisfies $omega(Omega) = 3! = 6$. Here, the notation on the l.h.s. just means the full contraction of $omega$ and $Omega$.) Then, checking on a basis (again, by symmetry, it's enough to check a single basis element), we find that
$$phi(mu) = frac{1}{2} Omega(mu,,cdot,),$$
where the notation on the r.h.s. just means that we contract $mu$ with the first two slots of $Omega$. Computing gives in our case that $$Omega = partial_x wedge partial_y wedge partial_z .$$
While the question is about vector fields, the map $phi : Gamma(bigwedge^2 T^* Bbb R^3) stackrel{cong}{to} Gamma(bigwedge^1 T Bbb R^3) = Gamma(T Bbb R^3)$ is tensorial, so it suffices to describe it at a single point, say, $phi_0 : Lambda^2 T^*_0 Bbb R^3 to T_0 Bbb R^3$. Using the canonical identification $T_a Bbb R^3 cong Bbb R^3$ and suppressing the subscript, we'll write $$phi : textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*} stackrel{cong}{to} textstyle{bigwedge^1 Bbb R^3} = Bbb R^3 .$$
First, since this map is linear, so as with any linear map the coefficients come along for the ride:
$$phi(x ,dy wedge dz + y^2 dx wedge dz) = x phi(dy wedge dz) + y^2 phi(dx wedge dz) .$$
We get such a map from any volume form, that is, any nonvanishing top form $omega in bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$. With this in hand, it's easier to describe the inverse, which is just interior multiplication,
$$phi^{-1} : Bbb R^3 to textstyle{bigwedge^2 (Bbb R^3)^*}, qquad X mapsto iota_X omega = omega(X,,cdot,,,cdot,) .$$
Since it's not stated otherwise, we'll take the standard volume form, $dx wedge dy wedge dz$. So, for example, $$phi^{-1}(partial_x) = iota_{partial_x} (dx wedge dy wedge dz) = dy wedge dz .$$ Thus,
$$boxed{phi(dy wedge dz) = partial_x} ,$$
and by symmetry cyclic permutation gives that image under $phi$ of the other two basis elements.
We can also write down the inverse in an invariant (i.e., coordinate-independent) way: Since the space $bigwedge^3 (Bbb R^3)^*$ is $1$-dimensional, there is a unique element $Omega$ of its dual, $bigwedge^3 Bbb R^3$, that satisfies $omega(Omega) = 3! = 6$. Here, the notation on the l.h.s. just means the full contraction of $omega$ and $Omega$.) Then, checking on a basis (again, by symmetry, it's enough to check a single basis element), we find that
$$phi(mu) = frac{1}{2} Omega(mu,,cdot,),$$
where the notation on the r.h.s. just means that we contract $mu$ with the first two slots of $Omega$. Computing gives in our case that $$Omega = partial_x wedge partial_y wedge partial_z .$$
edited Nov 18 at 9:46
answered Nov 18 at 6:10
Travis
59k766144
59k766144
add a comment |
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.
Please pay close attention to the following guidance:
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3002764%2fconverting-a-2-form-on-mathbbr3-to-a-vector-field-on-mathbbr3%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown