Show that $G_i/G_{i+1} twoheadrightarrow (G_i +N)/ (G_{i+1} +N)$.











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From Aluffi's book of Algebra:



enter image description here



in which it refers to Theorem 7.12 :



enter image description here



[Red underlined:] I can't see any connection with Theorem 7.12! Actually I don't know how the $+$ appears. How to show that $G_i/G_{i+1} twoheadrightarrow (G_i +N)/ (G_{i+1} +N)$?










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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    From Aluffi's book of Algebra:



    enter image description here



    in which it refers to Theorem 7.12 :



    enter image description here



    [Red underlined:] I can't see any connection with Theorem 7.12! Actually I don't know how the $+$ appears. How to show that $G_i/G_{i+1} twoheadrightarrow (G_i +N)/ (G_{i+1} +N)$?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      From Aluffi's book of Algebra:



      enter image description here



      in which it refers to Theorem 7.12 :



      enter image description here



      [Red underlined:] I can't see any connection with Theorem 7.12! Actually I don't know how the $+$ appears. How to show that $G_i/G_{i+1} twoheadrightarrow (G_i +N)/ (G_{i+1} +N)$?










      share|cite|improve this question















      From Aluffi's book of Algebra:



      enter image description here



      in which it refers to Theorem 7.12 :



      enter image description here



      [Red underlined:] I can't see any connection with Theorem 7.12! Actually I don't know how the $+$ appears. How to show that $G_i/G_{i+1} twoheadrightarrow (G_i +N)/ (G_{i+1} +N)$?







      abstract-algebra proof-explanation






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Nov 18 at 18:34

























      asked Nov 18 at 8:43









      72D

      50916




      50916






















          1 Answer
          1






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          accepted










          Since $G$ is understood to be a multiplicative group, I think the $+$ is a typo.
          Let $G'=(G_iN)/(G_{i+1}N)$ and
          begin{align}
          &varphi:G_itwoheadrightarrow G'&
          &xmapsto xG_{i+1}N
          end{align}

          Since $G_{i+1}subseteqoperatorname{Ker}varphi$, theorem 7.12 asserts that there exists one and only one group homomorphism $barvarphi:G_i/G_{i+1}to G'$ making the following diagram commutative:
          $require{AMScd}$
          begin{CD}
          G_i@>varphi>>G'\
          @Vpi VV @|\
          G_i/G_{i+1}@>>barvarphi>G'
          end{CD}

          where $pi:G_ito G_i/G_{i+1}$ is the canonical projection onto the factor group.
          Since $varphi$ is surjective, $barvarphi$ is surjective as well.



          If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $, hence $barvarphi $ is an isomorphism or is trivial.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Why surjectivity of $barvarphi$ implies $G'$ is either trivial or isomorphic to $G_i/G_{i+1}$? I can't figure that out even knowing $G_i/G_{i+1}$ is simple.
            – 72D
            Nov 18 at 22:14






          • 1




            If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $.
            – Fabio Lucchini
            Nov 18 at 22:32













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          active

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          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Since $G$ is understood to be a multiplicative group, I think the $+$ is a typo.
          Let $G'=(G_iN)/(G_{i+1}N)$ and
          begin{align}
          &varphi:G_itwoheadrightarrow G'&
          &xmapsto xG_{i+1}N
          end{align}

          Since $G_{i+1}subseteqoperatorname{Ker}varphi$, theorem 7.12 asserts that there exists one and only one group homomorphism $barvarphi:G_i/G_{i+1}to G'$ making the following diagram commutative:
          $require{AMScd}$
          begin{CD}
          G_i@>varphi>>G'\
          @Vpi VV @|\
          G_i/G_{i+1}@>>barvarphi>G'
          end{CD}

          where $pi:G_ito G_i/G_{i+1}$ is the canonical projection onto the factor group.
          Since $varphi$ is surjective, $barvarphi$ is surjective as well.



          If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $, hence $barvarphi $ is an isomorphism or is trivial.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Why surjectivity of $barvarphi$ implies $G'$ is either trivial or isomorphic to $G_i/G_{i+1}$? I can't figure that out even knowing $G_i/G_{i+1}$ is simple.
            – 72D
            Nov 18 at 22:14






          • 1




            If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $.
            – Fabio Lucchini
            Nov 18 at 22:32

















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Since $G$ is understood to be a multiplicative group, I think the $+$ is a typo.
          Let $G'=(G_iN)/(G_{i+1}N)$ and
          begin{align}
          &varphi:G_itwoheadrightarrow G'&
          &xmapsto xG_{i+1}N
          end{align}

          Since $G_{i+1}subseteqoperatorname{Ker}varphi$, theorem 7.12 asserts that there exists one and only one group homomorphism $barvarphi:G_i/G_{i+1}to G'$ making the following diagram commutative:
          $require{AMScd}$
          begin{CD}
          G_i@>varphi>>G'\
          @Vpi VV @|\
          G_i/G_{i+1}@>>barvarphi>G'
          end{CD}

          where $pi:G_ito G_i/G_{i+1}$ is the canonical projection onto the factor group.
          Since $varphi$ is surjective, $barvarphi$ is surjective as well.



          If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $, hence $barvarphi $ is an isomorphism or is trivial.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Why surjectivity of $barvarphi$ implies $G'$ is either trivial or isomorphic to $G_i/G_{i+1}$? I can't figure that out even knowing $G_i/G_{i+1}$ is simple.
            – 72D
            Nov 18 at 22:14






          • 1




            If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $.
            – Fabio Lucchini
            Nov 18 at 22:32















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Since $G$ is understood to be a multiplicative group, I think the $+$ is a typo.
          Let $G'=(G_iN)/(G_{i+1}N)$ and
          begin{align}
          &varphi:G_itwoheadrightarrow G'&
          &xmapsto xG_{i+1}N
          end{align}

          Since $G_{i+1}subseteqoperatorname{Ker}varphi$, theorem 7.12 asserts that there exists one and only one group homomorphism $barvarphi:G_i/G_{i+1}to G'$ making the following diagram commutative:
          $require{AMScd}$
          begin{CD}
          G_i@>varphi>>G'\
          @Vpi VV @|\
          G_i/G_{i+1}@>>barvarphi>G'
          end{CD}

          where $pi:G_ito G_i/G_{i+1}$ is the canonical projection onto the factor group.
          Since $varphi$ is surjective, $barvarphi$ is surjective as well.



          If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $, hence $barvarphi $ is an isomorphism or is trivial.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Since $G$ is understood to be a multiplicative group, I think the $+$ is a typo.
          Let $G'=(G_iN)/(G_{i+1}N)$ and
          begin{align}
          &varphi:G_itwoheadrightarrow G'&
          &xmapsto xG_{i+1}N
          end{align}

          Since $G_{i+1}subseteqoperatorname{Ker}varphi$, theorem 7.12 asserts that there exists one and only one group homomorphism $barvarphi:G_i/G_{i+1}to G'$ making the following diagram commutative:
          $require{AMScd}$
          begin{CD}
          G_i@>varphi>>G'\
          @Vpi VV @|\
          G_i/G_{i+1}@>>barvarphi>G'
          end{CD}

          where $pi:G_ito G_i/G_{i+1}$ is the canonical projection onto the factor group.
          Since $varphi$ is surjective, $barvarphi$ is surjective as well.



          If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $, hence $barvarphi $ is an isomorphism or is trivial.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 18 at 22:36

























          answered Nov 18 at 20:44









          Fabio Lucchini

          7,80311326




          7,80311326












          • Why surjectivity of $barvarphi$ implies $G'$ is either trivial or isomorphic to $G_i/G_{i+1}$? I can't figure that out even knowing $G_i/G_{i+1}$ is simple.
            – 72D
            Nov 18 at 22:14






          • 1




            If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $.
            – Fabio Lucchini
            Nov 18 at 22:32




















          • Why surjectivity of $barvarphi$ implies $G'$ is either trivial or isomorphic to $G_i/G_{i+1}$? I can't figure that out even knowing $G_i/G_{i+1}$ is simple.
            – 72D
            Nov 18 at 22:14






          • 1




            If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $.
            – Fabio Lucchini
            Nov 18 at 22:32


















          Why surjectivity of $barvarphi$ implies $G'$ is either trivial or isomorphic to $G_i/G_{i+1}$? I can't figure that out even knowing $G_i/G_{i+1}$ is simple.
          – 72D
          Nov 18 at 22:14




          Why surjectivity of $barvarphi$ implies $G'$ is either trivial or isomorphic to $G_i/G_{i+1}$? I can't figure that out even knowing $G_i/G_{i+1}$ is simple.
          – 72D
          Nov 18 at 22:14




          1




          1




          If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $.
          – Fabio Lucchini
          Nov 18 at 22:32






          If $G_i/G_{i+1} $ is simple, then $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi={1} $ or $operatorname{Ker}barvarphi=G_i/G_{i+1} $.
          – Fabio Lucchini
          Nov 18 at 22:32




















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