Under which conditions does small uniform norm imply 'similarity' of subgradients.












0














Let $mathcal{S}$ be the set of proper convex functions functions from $X$ to $mathbb{R}$, where $X$ is a open and convex subset of $mathbb{R}^{n}$. I was wondering under which conditions on $mathcal{S}$ we have
begin{gather}
forall epsilon>0 exists delta>0 text{ such that for } f,h in mathcal{S} , ||f-h||_{infty} < delta \
Rightarrow underset{ x in X}{sup} underset{ v in partial f(x), w in partial h(x)}{sup}||v-w||_2 <epsilon
end{gather}



Motivation: Intuitively, the fact that $||f-h||_{infty}$ is small, means that the shape of the graphs of the functions are similar and hence also their suporting hyperplanes might be similar. Of course this is just a picture that I have in mind for the 1-dimensional case.



Any help or suggestions for possible references to similar results would be great.



From where the problemm comes: I have a function $F$ that maps convex functions to elements of their subgradient at any given point. I would like to show that if the mapped functions are similar, i.e. $||f-h||_{infty}$ is sufficiently small, then we can say that $||F(h)-F(f)||_{2}$ is small.










share|cite|improve this question





























    0














    Let $mathcal{S}$ be the set of proper convex functions functions from $X$ to $mathbb{R}$, where $X$ is a open and convex subset of $mathbb{R}^{n}$. I was wondering under which conditions on $mathcal{S}$ we have
    begin{gather}
    forall epsilon>0 exists delta>0 text{ such that for } f,h in mathcal{S} , ||f-h||_{infty} < delta \
    Rightarrow underset{ x in X}{sup} underset{ v in partial f(x), w in partial h(x)}{sup}||v-w||_2 <epsilon
    end{gather}



    Motivation: Intuitively, the fact that $||f-h||_{infty}$ is small, means that the shape of the graphs of the functions are similar and hence also their suporting hyperplanes might be similar. Of course this is just a picture that I have in mind for the 1-dimensional case.



    Any help or suggestions for possible references to similar results would be great.



    From where the problemm comes: I have a function $F$ that maps convex functions to elements of their subgradient at any given point. I would like to show that if the mapped functions are similar, i.e. $||f-h||_{infty}$ is sufficiently small, then we can say that $||F(h)-F(f)||_{2}$ is small.










    share|cite|improve this question



























      0












      0








      0


      1





      Let $mathcal{S}$ be the set of proper convex functions functions from $X$ to $mathbb{R}$, where $X$ is a open and convex subset of $mathbb{R}^{n}$. I was wondering under which conditions on $mathcal{S}$ we have
      begin{gather}
      forall epsilon>0 exists delta>0 text{ such that for } f,h in mathcal{S} , ||f-h||_{infty} < delta \
      Rightarrow underset{ x in X}{sup} underset{ v in partial f(x), w in partial h(x)}{sup}||v-w||_2 <epsilon
      end{gather}



      Motivation: Intuitively, the fact that $||f-h||_{infty}$ is small, means that the shape of the graphs of the functions are similar and hence also their suporting hyperplanes might be similar. Of course this is just a picture that I have in mind for the 1-dimensional case.



      Any help or suggestions for possible references to similar results would be great.



      From where the problemm comes: I have a function $F$ that maps convex functions to elements of their subgradient at any given point. I would like to show that if the mapped functions are similar, i.e. $||f-h||_{infty}$ is sufficiently small, then we can say that $||F(h)-F(f)||_{2}$ is small.










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $mathcal{S}$ be the set of proper convex functions functions from $X$ to $mathbb{R}$, where $X$ is a open and convex subset of $mathbb{R}^{n}$. I was wondering under which conditions on $mathcal{S}$ we have
      begin{gather}
      forall epsilon>0 exists delta>0 text{ such that for } f,h in mathcal{S} , ||f-h||_{infty} < delta \
      Rightarrow underset{ x in X}{sup} underset{ v in partial f(x), w in partial h(x)}{sup}||v-w||_2 <epsilon
      end{gather}



      Motivation: Intuitively, the fact that $||f-h||_{infty}$ is small, means that the shape of the graphs of the functions are similar and hence also their suporting hyperplanes might be similar. Of course this is just a picture that I have in mind for the 1-dimensional case.



      Any help or suggestions for possible references to similar results would be great.



      From where the problemm comes: I have a function $F$ that maps convex functions to elements of their subgradient at any given point. I would like to show that if the mapped functions are similar, i.e. $||f-h||_{infty}$ is sufficiently small, then we can say that $||F(h)-F(f)||_{2}$ is small.







      functional-analysis convex-analysis






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Nov 18 at 16:02

























      asked Nov 18 at 14:06









      sigmatau

      1,7551924




      1,7551924






















          1 Answer
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          2














          Assuming any conditions on $S$ if $S$ still contains at least one non-smooth function then your claim does not hold.



          Proof: Let $f in S$ such that $f$ is not differentiable at $x_0 in X.$ Hence there exist $v , w in partial f(x_0) $ such that $ v neq w $. Set $ epsilon = | v -w | $
          Then observe that for any positive delta , your statement does not holds for two functions $f,~ h$ where $ f = h $ and $v in partial f(x_0) $ and $ w in partial h(x_0) $.



          P.S:
          But I feel like your claim would be true if you switch the second $sup$ to $inf$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I found this ( math.stackexchange.com/questions/976913/…). Hence, there exists a notion of convergence of function which guarantees that the subdifferentials converge in some sense, but I have to give it a look.
            – sigmatau
            Nov 18 at 20:45










          • are you confident that the result holds if we switch $sup$ with $inf$. Do you have an idea how to prove that?
            – sigmatau
            Nov 19 at 8:33








          • 1




            @sigmatau I'm not 100 % sure about. I just guessed , that's what my intuition tells me. I need to pick up pen I spend time to prove it (or reject it). I suggest you write a separate question for that.
            – Red shoes
            Nov 19 at 17:17










          • Already did it today math.stackexchange.com/questions/3004735/… . Thank you for your help. .
            – sigmatau
            Nov 19 at 17:22













          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          active

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          2














          Assuming any conditions on $S$ if $S$ still contains at least one non-smooth function then your claim does not hold.



          Proof: Let $f in S$ such that $f$ is not differentiable at $x_0 in X.$ Hence there exist $v , w in partial f(x_0) $ such that $ v neq w $. Set $ epsilon = | v -w | $
          Then observe that for any positive delta , your statement does not holds for two functions $f,~ h$ where $ f = h $ and $v in partial f(x_0) $ and $ w in partial h(x_0) $.



          P.S:
          But I feel like your claim would be true if you switch the second $sup$ to $inf$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I found this ( math.stackexchange.com/questions/976913/…). Hence, there exists a notion of convergence of function which guarantees that the subdifferentials converge in some sense, but I have to give it a look.
            – sigmatau
            Nov 18 at 20:45










          • are you confident that the result holds if we switch $sup$ with $inf$. Do you have an idea how to prove that?
            – sigmatau
            Nov 19 at 8:33








          • 1




            @sigmatau I'm not 100 % sure about. I just guessed , that's what my intuition tells me. I need to pick up pen I spend time to prove it (or reject it). I suggest you write a separate question for that.
            – Red shoes
            Nov 19 at 17:17










          • Already did it today math.stackexchange.com/questions/3004735/… . Thank you for your help. .
            – sigmatau
            Nov 19 at 17:22


















          2














          Assuming any conditions on $S$ if $S$ still contains at least one non-smooth function then your claim does not hold.



          Proof: Let $f in S$ such that $f$ is not differentiable at $x_0 in X.$ Hence there exist $v , w in partial f(x_0) $ such that $ v neq w $. Set $ epsilon = | v -w | $
          Then observe that for any positive delta , your statement does not holds for two functions $f,~ h$ where $ f = h $ and $v in partial f(x_0) $ and $ w in partial h(x_0) $.



          P.S:
          But I feel like your claim would be true if you switch the second $sup$ to $inf$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I found this ( math.stackexchange.com/questions/976913/…). Hence, there exists a notion of convergence of function which guarantees that the subdifferentials converge in some sense, but I have to give it a look.
            – sigmatau
            Nov 18 at 20:45










          • are you confident that the result holds if we switch $sup$ with $inf$. Do you have an idea how to prove that?
            – sigmatau
            Nov 19 at 8:33








          • 1




            @sigmatau I'm not 100 % sure about. I just guessed , that's what my intuition tells me. I need to pick up pen I spend time to prove it (or reject it). I suggest you write a separate question for that.
            – Red shoes
            Nov 19 at 17:17










          • Already did it today math.stackexchange.com/questions/3004735/… . Thank you for your help. .
            – sigmatau
            Nov 19 at 17:22
















          2












          2








          2






          Assuming any conditions on $S$ if $S$ still contains at least one non-smooth function then your claim does not hold.



          Proof: Let $f in S$ such that $f$ is not differentiable at $x_0 in X.$ Hence there exist $v , w in partial f(x_0) $ such that $ v neq w $. Set $ epsilon = | v -w | $
          Then observe that for any positive delta , your statement does not holds for two functions $f,~ h$ where $ f = h $ and $v in partial f(x_0) $ and $ w in partial h(x_0) $.



          P.S:
          But I feel like your claim would be true if you switch the second $sup$ to $inf$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Assuming any conditions on $S$ if $S$ still contains at least one non-smooth function then your claim does not hold.



          Proof: Let $f in S$ such that $f$ is not differentiable at $x_0 in X.$ Hence there exist $v , w in partial f(x_0) $ such that $ v neq w $. Set $ epsilon = | v -w | $
          Then observe that for any positive delta , your statement does not holds for two functions $f,~ h$ where $ f = h $ and $v in partial f(x_0) $ and $ w in partial h(x_0) $.



          P.S:
          But I feel like your claim would be true if you switch the second $sup$ to $inf$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 18 at 18:40

























          answered Nov 18 at 18:29









          Red shoes

          4,706621




          4,706621












          • I found this ( math.stackexchange.com/questions/976913/…). Hence, there exists a notion of convergence of function which guarantees that the subdifferentials converge in some sense, but I have to give it a look.
            – sigmatau
            Nov 18 at 20:45










          • are you confident that the result holds if we switch $sup$ with $inf$. Do you have an idea how to prove that?
            – sigmatau
            Nov 19 at 8:33








          • 1




            @sigmatau I'm not 100 % sure about. I just guessed , that's what my intuition tells me. I need to pick up pen I spend time to prove it (or reject it). I suggest you write a separate question for that.
            – Red shoes
            Nov 19 at 17:17










          • Already did it today math.stackexchange.com/questions/3004735/… . Thank you for your help. .
            – sigmatau
            Nov 19 at 17:22




















          • I found this ( math.stackexchange.com/questions/976913/…). Hence, there exists a notion of convergence of function which guarantees that the subdifferentials converge in some sense, but I have to give it a look.
            – sigmatau
            Nov 18 at 20:45










          • are you confident that the result holds if we switch $sup$ with $inf$. Do you have an idea how to prove that?
            – sigmatau
            Nov 19 at 8:33








          • 1




            @sigmatau I'm not 100 % sure about. I just guessed , that's what my intuition tells me. I need to pick up pen I spend time to prove it (or reject it). I suggest you write a separate question for that.
            – Red shoes
            Nov 19 at 17:17










          • Already did it today math.stackexchange.com/questions/3004735/… . Thank you for your help. .
            – sigmatau
            Nov 19 at 17:22


















          I found this ( math.stackexchange.com/questions/976913/…). Hence, there exists a notion of convergence of function which guarantees that the subdifferentials converge in some sense, but I have to give it a look.
          – sigmatau
          Nov 18 at 20:45




          I found this ( math.stackexchange.com/questions/976913/…). Hence, there exists a notion of convergence of function which guarantees that the subdifferentials converge in some sense, but I have to give it a look.
          – sigmatau
          Nov 18 at 20:45












          are you confident that the result holds if we switch $sup$ with $inf$. Do you have an idea how to prove that?
          – sigmatau
          Nov 19 at 8:33






          are you confident that the result holds if we switch $sup$ with $inf$. Do you have an idea how to prove that?
          – sigmatau
          Nov 19 at 8:33






          1




          1




          @sigmatau I'm not 100 % sure about. I just guessed , that's what my intuition tells me. I need to pick up pen I spend time to prove it (or reject it). I suggest you write a separate question for that.
          – Red shoes
          Nov 19 at 17:17




          @sigmatau I'm not 100 % sure about. I just guessed , that's what my intuition tells me. I need to pick up pen I spend time to prove it (or reject it). I suggest you write a separate question for that.
          – Red shoes
          Nov 19 at 17:17












          Already did it today math.stackexchange.com/questions/3004735/… . Thank you for your help. .
          – sigmatau
          Nov 19 at 17:22






          Already did it today math.stackexchange.com/questions/3004735/… . Thank you for your help. .
          – sigmatau
          Nov 19 at 17:22




















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