Show that each point in $V$ has the same out valency in $Omega$











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Here is a statement from the book:




Let G be a group of permutations that acts transitively on $V$, a set of vertices. Let $Omega$ be an orbit of $G$ on $Vtimes V$ that is not symmetric (so $Omega neq Omega^T$). Then $Omega$ is an oriented graph $G$ acts transitively on its vertices. Hence each point in $V$ has the same out-valency and the same in-valency.




I am trying to show that the latter part is true, and it's been tough. Doing any sort of matchings of arcs from $(x,y)$ to $(a,b)$ for some $x,a in V$ proves to be tough since we have a lot of $g$'s and any edge $(x,y)$ can be mapped to any edge $(a,b)$ by choosing (possibly more than one choice) a $g in G$ such that $g(x) = a, g(y) = b$.



One avenue of attack is this: Say $x,a in V$. We know that $G_x leq G$. Since the set of $g in G$ such that $g(x) = a$ is a right coset of $G_x$, we can denote $G_{x rightarrow a} = lbrace g : g(x) = a rbrace$. Now since $G$ is transitive and $Omega$ is an orbital, we know that if $(a,b) in Omega, exists g in G$ such that $(x,y)^g = (a,b)$. This $g$ is also in $G_{x rightarrow a}$. So if $langle x rangle$ are all the out-arcs of $x$, then $G_{x rightarrow a}$ applied to $langle x rangle$ will be the set of edges $langle a rangle$. So $g$ can be viewed as a permutation between $y in V : (x,y) in Omega$ and $b in V : (a,b) in Omega$. Since $g$ is a permutation, the map is 1-1. So the sets must be the same. Similar logic can be applied to obtain the same result for in-arcs.



This seems to be over-complicated for a statement in the book that is not proven. Am I missing a much simpler proof for this statement?



PS. Sorry for the excessive notation, I tried my best to be as precise and as clean as possible. Thanks!










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    Here is a statement from the book:




    Let G be a group of permutations that acts transitively on $V$, a set of vertices. Let $Omega$ be an orbit of $G$ on $Vtimes V$ that is not symmetric (so $Omega neq Omega^T$). Then $Omega$ is an oriented graph $G$ acts transitively on its vertices. Hence each point in $V$ has the same out-valency and the same in-valency.




    I am trying to show that the latter part is true, and it's been tough. Doing any sort of matchings of arcs from $(x,y)$ to $(a,b)$ for some $x,a in V$ proves to be tough since we have a lot of $g$'s and any edge $(x,y)$ can be mapped to any edge $(a,b)$ by choosing (possibly more than one choice) a $g in G$ such that $g(x) = a, g(y) = b$.



    One avenue of attack is this: Say $x,a in V$. We know that $G_x leq G$. Since the set of $g in G$ such that $g(x) = a$ is a right coset of $G_x$, we can denote $G_{x rightarrow a} = lbrace g : g(x) = a rbrace$. Now since $G$ is transitive and $Omega$ is an orbital, we know that if $(a,b) in Omega, exists g in G$ such that $(x,y)^g = (a,b)$. This $g$ is also in $G_{x rightarrow a}$. So if $langle x rangle$ are all the out-arcs of $x$, then $G_{x rightarrow a}$ applied to $langle x rangle$ will be the set of edges $langle a rangle$. So $g$ can be viewed as a permutation between $y in V : (x,y) in Omega$ and $b in V : (a,b) in Omega$. Since $g$ is a permutation, the map is 1-1. So the sets must be the same. Similar logic can be applied to obtain the same result for in-arcs.



    This seems to be over-complicated for a statement in the book that is not proven. Am I missing a much simpler proof for this statement?



    PS. Sorry for the excessive notation, I tried my best to be as precise and as clean as possible. Thanks!










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Here is a statement from the book:




      Let G be a group of permutations that acts transitively on $V$, a set of vertices. Let $Omega$ be an orbit of $G$ on $Vtimes V$ that is not symmetric (so $Omega neq Omega^T$). Then $Omega$ is an oriented graph $G$ acts transitively on its vertices. Hence each point in $V$ has the same out-valency and the same in-valency.




      I am trying to show that the latter part is true, and it's been tough. Doing any sort of matchings of arcs from $(x,y)$ to $(a,b)$ for some $x,a in V$ proves to be tough since we have a lot of $g$'s and any edge $(x,y)$ can be mapped to any edge $(a,b)$ by choosing (possibly more than one choice) a $g in G$ such that $g(x) = a, g(y) = b$.



      One avenue of attack is this: Say $x,a in V$. We know that $G_x leq G$. Since the set of $g in G$ such that $g(x) = a$ is a right coset of $G_x$, we can denote $G_{x rightarrow a} = lbrace g : g(x) = a rbrace$. Now since $G$ is transitive and $Omega$ is an orbital, we know that if $(a,b) in Omega, exists g in G$ such that $(x,y)^g = (a,b)$. This $g$ is also in $G_{x rightarrow a}$. So if $langle x rangle$ are all the out-arcs of $x$, then $G_{x rightarrow a}$ applied to $langle x rangle$ will be the set of edges $langle a rangle$. So $g$ can be viewed as a permutation between $y in V : (x,y) in Omega$ and $b in V : (a,b) in Omega$. Since $g$ is a permutation, the map is 1-1. So the sets must be the same. Similar logic can be applied to obtain the same result for in-arcs.



      This seems to be over-complicated for a statement in the book that is not proven. Am I missing a much simpler proof for this statement?



      PS. Sorry for the excessive notation, I tried my best to be as precise and as clean as possible. Thanks!










      share|cite|improve this question













      Here is a statement from the book:




      Let G be a group of permutations that acts transitively on $V$, a set of vertices. Let $Omega$ be an orbit of $G$ on $Vtimes V$ that is not symmetric (so $Omega neq Omega^T$). Then $Omega$ is an oriented graph $G$ acts transitively on its vertices. Hence each point in $V$ has the same out-valency and the same in-valency.




      I am trying to show that the latter part is true, and it's been tough. Doing any sort of matchings of arcs from $(x,y)$ to $(a,b)$ for some $x,a in V$ proves to be tough since we have a lot of $g$'s and any edge $(x,y)$ can be mapped to any edge $(a,b)$ by choosing (possibly more than one choice) a $g in G$ such that $g(x) = a, g(y) = b$.



      One avenue of attack is this: Say $x,a in V$. We know that $G_x leq G$. Since the set of $g in G$ such that $g(x) = a$ is a right coset of $G_x$, we can denote $G_{x rightarrow a} = lbrace g : g(x) = a rbrace$. Now since $G$ is transitive and $Omega$ is an orbital, we know that if $(a,b) in Omega, exists g in G$ such that $(x,y)^g = (a,b)$. This $g$ is also in $G_{x rightarrow a}$. So if $langle x rangle$ are all the out-arcs of $x$, then $G_{x rightarrow a}$ applied to $langle x rangle$ will be the set of edges $langle a rangle$. So $g$ can be viewed as a permutation between $y in V : (x,y) in Omega$ and $b in V : (a,b) in Omega$. Since $g$ is a permutation, the map is 1-1. So the sets must be the same. Similar logic can be applied to obtain the same result for in-arcs.



      This seems to be over-complicated for a statement in the book that is not proven. Am I missing a much simpler proof for this statement?



      PS. Sorry for the excessive notation, I tried my best to be as precise and as clean as possible. Thanks!







      graph-theory algebraic-graph-theory






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      asked 2 days ago









      SalmonKiller

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          (It is not clear from your question how you get the orientations of each edge from the automorphism group, since if there is an element of $G$ sending $(a_{1},b_{1}) mapsto (a_{2},b_{2})$ then there is also an element sending $(a_{2},b_{2}) mapsto (a_{1},b_{1})$. So I am going to assume that this orientation is defined in a way so that the action of $G$ gives an automorphism group of the oriented graph.)



          It is immediate that $G$ acts transitively on $Omega$. The action of $G$ gives an automorphism group of the oriented graph. Since automorphisms must send a vertex $v$ to another vertex with the same in-degree and out-degree, the existence of a vertex-transitive automorphism group forces every vertex to have the same in- and out-degree.






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            (It is not clear from your question how you get the orientations of each edge from the automorphism group, since if there is an element of $G$ sending $(a_{1},b_{1}) mapsto (a_{2},b_{2})$ then there is also an element sending $(a_{2},b_{2}) mapsto (a_{1},b_{1})$. So I am going to assume that this orientation is defined in a way so that the action of $G$ gives an automorphism group of the oriented graph.)



            It is immediate that $G$ acts transitively on $Omega$. The action of $G$ gives an automorphism group of the oriented graph. Since automorphisms must send a vertex $v$ to another vertex with the same in-degree and out-degree, the existence of a vertex-transitive automorphism group forces every vertex to have the same in- and out-degree.






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              (It is not clear from your question how you get the orientations of each edge from the automorphism group, since if there is an element of $G$ sending $(a_{1},b_{1}) mapsto (a_{2},b_{2})$ then there is also an element sending $(a_{2},b_{2}) mapsto (a_{1},b_{1})$. So I am going to assume that this orientation is defined in a way so that the action of $G$ gives an automorphism group of the oriented graph.)



              It is immediate that $G$ acts transitively on $Omega$. The action of $G$ gives an automorphism group of the oriented graph. Since automorphisms must send a vertex $v$ to another vertex with the same in-degree and out-degree, the existence of a vertex-transitive automorphism group forces every vertex to have the same in- and out-degree.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted






                (It is not clear from your question how you get the orientations of each edge from the automorphism group, since if there is an element of $G$ sending $(a_{1},b_{1}) mapsto (a_{2},b_{2})$ then there is also an element sending $(a_{2},b_{2}) mapsto (a_{1},b_{1})$. So I am going to assume that this orientation is defined in a way so that the action of $G$ gives an automorphism group of the oriented graph.)



                It is immediate that $G$ acts transitively on $Omega$. The action of $G$ gives an automorphism group of the oriented graph. Since automorphisms must send a vertex $v$ to another vertex with the same in-degree and out-degree, the existence of a vertex-transitive automorphism group forces every vertex to have the same in- and out-degree.






                share|cite|improve this answer














                (It is not clear from your question how you get the orientations of each edge from the automorphism group, since if there is an element of $G$ sending $(a_{1},b_{1}) mapsto (a_{2},b_{2})$ then there is also an element sending $(a_{2},b_{2}) mapsto (a_{1},b_{1})$. So I am going to assume that this orientation is defined in a way so that the action of $G$ gives an automorphism group of the oriented graph.)



                It is immediate that $G$ acts transitively on $Omega$. The action of $G$ gives an automorphism group of the oriented graph. Since automorphisms must send a vertex $v$ to another vertex with the same in-degree and out-degree, the existence of a vertex-transitive automorphism group forces every vertex to have the same in- and out-degree.







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                edited 4 hours ago

























                answered 5 hours ago









                Morgan Rodgers

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