Proof that a matrix is invertible if and only if meets this property.











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-1
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We have $Ain operatorname{Mat}_n(K)$ and I am told to prove that $Ain GL_n(K)$ if and only if meets
$ABiggl(begin{matrix} x_1 \ ... \ x_n end{matrix}Biggr)=Biggl(begin{matrix} 0 \ ... \ 0 end{matrix}Biggr)$ then $x_1,...,x_n = 0$



As a tip I am told to consider $beta$ the base of a vector space $V$ with $n$ dimension and $fin operatorname{End}V)$ whose associated matrix is $A$.



I don't know how to use that "tip" to prove that.
Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Suppose that $A$ is invertible and $Ax=0$. Then $x=A^{-1}Ax=A^{-1}(0)=0$ as required.
    – Dietrich Burde
    Nov 16 at 19:03

















up vote
-1
down vote

favorite












We have $Ain operatorname{Mat}_n(K)$ and I am told to prove that $Ain GL_n(K)$ if and only if meets
$ABiggl(begin{matrix} x_1 \ ... \ x_n end{matrix}Biggr)=Biggl(begin{matrix} 0 \ ... \ 0 end{matrix}Biggr)$ then $x_1,...,x_n = 0$



As a tip I am told to consider $beta$ the base of a vector space $V$ with $n$ dimension and $fin operatorname{End}V)$ whose associated matrix is $A$.



I don't know how to use that "tip" to prove that.
Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Suppose that $A$ is invertible and $Ax=0$. Then $x=A^{-1}Ax=A^{-1}(0)=0$ as required.
    – Dietrich Burde
    Nov 16 at 19:03















up vote
-1
down vote

favorite









up vote
-1
down vote

favorite











We have $Ain operatorname{Mat}_n(K)$ and I am told to prove that $Ain GL_n(K)$ if and only if meets
$ABiggl(begin{matrix} x_1 \ ... \ x_n end{matrix}Biggr)=Biggl(begin{matrix} 0 \ ... \ 0 end{matrix}Biggr)$ then $x_1,...,x_n = 0$



As a tip I am told to consider $beta$ the base of a vector space $V$ with $n$ dimension and $fin operatorname{End}V)$ whose associated matrix is $A$.



I don't know how to use that "tip" to prove that.
Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question















We have $Ain operatorname{Mat}_n(K)$ and I am told to prove that $Ain GL_n(K)$ if and only if meets
$ABiggl(begin{matrix} x_1 \ ... \ x_n end{matrix}Biggr)=Biggl(begin{matrix} 0 \ ... \ 0 end{matrix}Biggr)$ then $x_1,...,x_n = 0$



As a tip I am told to consider $beta$ the base of a vector space $V$ with $n$ dimension and $fin operatorname{End}V)$ whose associated matrix is $A$.



I don't know how to use that "tip" to prove that.
Thanks in advance.







linear-algebra






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 16 at 20:20









Bernard

116k637108




116k637108










asked Nov 16 at 19:01









Andarrkor

33




33












  • Suppose that $A$ is invertible and $Ax=0$. Then $x=A^{-1}Ax=A^{-1}(0)=0$ as required.
    – Dietrich Burde
    Nov 16 at 19:03




















  • Suppose that $A$ is invertible and $Ax=0$. Then $x=A^{-1}Ax=A^{-1}(0)=0$ as required.
    – Dietrich Burde
    Nov 16 at 19:03


















Suppose that $A$ is invertible and $Ax=0$. Then $x=A^{-1}Ax=A^{-1}(0)=0$ as required.
– Dietrich Burde
Nov 16 at 19:03






Suppose that $A$ is invertible and $Ax=0$. Then $x=A^{-1}Ax=A^{-1}(0)=0$ as required.
– Dietrich Burde
Nov 16 at 19:03












3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










As indicated by your tip, consider the endomorphism $f$ represented by this matrix in a given basis of a $K$-vector space $V$ with dimension $n$.



Remember that $A$ is invertible if and only if $f$ is an isomorphism (more exactly, an automorphism since $f$ is an endomorphism).



Now in a finite dimensional space, $f$ is an automorphism if and only if it is injective (and also if and only if it is surjective).



Now, how do you characterise an injective linear map?



Some more details:



$f$ is injective (hence bijective) if and only if $ker f={0}$, i.e. if and only if
$$(f(v)=0)implies (v=0).$$
What is the relation between $f(v)$ and $A$?






share|cite|improve this answer























  • A linear transformation is injective when $Ker f = {0_v}$. But I do not know how to get to the matrix form from there.
    – Andarrkor
    Nov 16 at 20:34










  • I've added some details. Is that clearer now?
    – Bernard
    Nov 16 at 20:42










  • Sorry for asking so many questions, but there is something that I don't get. To get the images of the linear transformation $f$, being $v$ any vector of $V$ and ${v_1,...,v_n}$ a base of V we do. $f(v) = (v_1 ... v_n)Abegin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ being $begin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ the coordinates of $v$ with the base ${v_1,...,v_n}$. I don't understand which is the relation between that and $Ax=0$.
    – Andarrkor
    Nov 16 at 21:02










  • Let's call $(x_1, x_2,dots, x_n)$ the (unknown) coordinates of a vector $v$ in the kernel. Then $f(v)=Abegin{bmatrix}x_1\x_2\vdots\x_nend{bmatrix}$. So $vinker f$ means the coordinates of $v$ satisfy the linear system of equations defined by $A$.
    – Bernard
    Nov 16 at 21:09












  • Thanks for answering. But what happens with the matrix with the base vectors $(v_1...v_n)$ that are also in the multiplication?
    – Andarrkor
    Nov 17 at 1:34




















up vote
0
down vote













To get you started: A matrix operation is invertible if it is injective and surjective. If $Ax=0$ for some non-zero vector $x$, then $A$ is not injective, so it is not invertible. The contrapositive is that $A$ being invertible implies $Ax=0$ only for $x=0$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    If $A$ is invertible, then using $Rank-nullity$ $theorem$, we can proove that $text{Ker}(A) = {0}$, so if $A(x) = 0$ then $x=0$.



    Reciprocally, if $A$ meets the condition:



    $ABiggl(begin{matrix} x_1 \ ... \ x_n end{matrix}Biggr)=Biggl(begin{matrix} 0 \ ... \ 0 end{matrix}Biggr)$ then $x_1,...,x_n = 0$, it means that $text{Ker}(A) = {0}$. Using again the $Rank-nullity$ $theorem$, we can prove that $text{Rank}(A) = n$, which ensures us that $A$ is invertible.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • We have learnt the rank-nullity theorem just for lineal applications and not for matrices. So I have to use the linear aplication whose associated matrix is A to prove that. I know that there is a link between them as matrices and linear applications are isomorphic but I do not know how to "pass" from matrices to linear applications and vice versa. Hope you understood my problem.
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 16 at 19:56













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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    As indicated by your tip, consider the endomorphism $f$ represented by this matrix in a given basis of a $K$-vector space $V$ with dimension $n$.



    Remember that $A$ is invertible if and only if $f$ is an isomorphism (more exactly, an automorphism since $f$ is an endomorphism).



    Now in a finite dimensional space, $f$ is an automorphism if and only if it is injective (and also if and only if it is surjective).



    Now, how do you characterise an injective linear map?



    Some more details:



    $f$ is injective (hence bijective) if and only if $ker f={0}$, i.e. if and only if
    $$(f(v)=0)implies (v=0).$$
    What is the relation between $f(v)$ and $A$?






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • A linear transformation is injective when $Ker f = {0_v}$. But I do not know how to get to the matrix form from there.
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 16 at 20:34










    • I've added some details. Is that clearer now?
      – Bernard
      Nov 16 at 20:42










    • Sorry for asking so many questions, but there is something that I don't get. To get the images of the linear transformation $f$, being $v$ any vector of $V$ and ${v_1,...,v_n}$ a base of V we do. $f(v) = (v_1 ... v_n)Abegin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ being $begin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ the coordinates of $v$ with the base ${v_1,...,v_n}$. I don't understand which is the relation between that and $Ax=0$.
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 16 at 21:02










    • Let's call $(x_1, x_2,dots, x_n)$ the (unknown) coordinates of a vector $v$ in the kernel. Then $f(v)=Abegin{bmatrix}x_1\x_2\vdots\x_nend{bmatrix}$. So $vinker f$ means the coordinates of $v$ satisfy the linear system of equations defined by $A$.
      – Bernard
      Nov 16 at 21:09












    • Thanks for answering. But what happens with the matrix with the base vectors $(v_1...v_n)$ that are also in the multiplication?
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 17 at 1:34

















    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    As indicated by your tip, consider the endomorphism $f$ represented by this matrix in a given basis of a $K$-vector space $V$ with dimension $n$.



    Remember that $A$ is invertible if and only if $f$ is an isomorphism (more exactly, an automorphism since $f$ is an endomorphism).



    Now in a finite dimensional space, $f$ is an automorphism if and only if it is injective (and also if and only if it is surjective).



    Now, how do you characterise an injective linear map?



    Some more details:



    $f$ is injective (hence bijective) if and only if $ker f={0}$, i.e. if and only if
    $$(f(v)=0)implies (v=0).$$
    What is the relation between $f(v)$ and $A$?






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • A linear transformation is injective when $Ker f = {0_v}$. But I do not know how to get to the matrix form from there.
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 16 at 20:34










    • I've added some details. Is that clearer now?
      – Bernard
      Nov 16 at 20:42










    • Sorry for asking so many questions, but there is something that I don't get. To get the images of the linear transformation $f$, being $v$ any vector of $V$ and ${v_1,...,v_n}$ a base of V we do. $f(v) = (v_1 ... v_n)Abegin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ being $begin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ the coordinates of $v$ with the base ${v_1,...,v_n}$. I don't understand which is the relation between that and $Ax=0$.
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 16 at 21:02










    • Let's call $(x_1, x_2,dots, x_n)$ the (unknown) coordinates of a vector $v$ in the kernel. Then $f(v)=Abegin{bmatrix}x_1\x_2\vdots\x_nend{bmatrix}$. So $vinker f$ means the coordinates of $v$ satisfy the linear system of equations defined by $A$.
      – Bernard
      Nov 16 at 21:09












    • Thanks for answering. But what happens with the matrix with the base vectors $(v_1...v_n)$ that are also in the multiplication?
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 17 at 1:34















    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted






    As indicated by your tip, consider the endomorphism $f$ represented by this matrix in a given basis of a $K$-vector space $V$ with dimension $n$.



    Remember that $A$ is invertible if and only if $f$ is an isomorphism (more exactly, an automorphism since $f$ is an endomorphism).



    Now in a finite dimensional space, $f$ is an automorphism if and only if it is injective (and also if and only if it is surjective).



    Now, how do you characterise an injective linear map?



    Some more details:



    $f$ is injective (hence bijective) if and only if $ker f={0}$, i.e. if and only if
    $$(f(v)=0)implies (v=0).$$
    What is the relation between $f(v)$ and $A$?






    share|cite|improve this answer














    As indicated by your tip, consider the endomorphism $f$ represented by this matrix in a given basis of a $K$-vector space $V$ with dimension $n$.



    Remember that $A$ is invertible if and only if $f$ is an isomorphism (more exactly, an automorphism since $f$ is an endomorphism).



    Now in a finite dimensional space, $f$ is an automorphism if and only if it is injective (and also if and only if it is surjective).



    Now, how do you characterise an injective linear map?



    Some more details:



    $f$ is injective (hence bijective) if and only if $ker f={0}$, i.e. if and only if
    $$(f(v)=0)implies (v=0).$$
    What is the relation between $f(v)$ and $A$?







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 17 at 19:53

























    answered Nov 16 at 20:27









    Bernard

    116k637108




    116k637108












    • A linear transformation is injective when $Ker f = {0_v}$. But I do not know how to get to the matrix form from there.
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 16 at 20:34










    • I've added some details. Is that clearer now?
      – Bernard
      Nov 16 at 20:42










    • Sorry for asking so many questions, but there is something that I don't get. To get the images of the linear transformation $f$, being $v$ any vector of $V$ and ${v_1,...,v_n}$ a base of V we do. $f(v) = (v_1 ... v_n)Abegin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ being $begin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ the coordinates of $v$ with the base ${v_1,...,v_n}$. I don't understand which is the relation between that and $Ax=0$.
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 16 at 21:02










    • Let's call $(x_1, x_2,dots, x_n)$ the (unknown) coordinates of a vector $v$ in the kernel. Then $f(v)=Abegin{bmatrix}x_1\x_2\vdots\x_nend{bmatrix}$. So $vinker f$ means the coordinates of $v$ satisfy the linear system of equations defined by $A$.
      – Bernard
      Nov 16 at 21:09












    • Thanks for answering. But what happens with the matrix with the base vectors $(v_1...v_n)$ that are also in the multiplication?
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 17 at 1:34




















    • A linear transformation is injective when $Ker f = {0_v}$. But I do not know how to get to the matrix form from there.
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 16 at 20:34










    • I've added some details. Is that clearer now?
      – Bernard
      Nov 16 at 20:42










    • Sorry for asking so many questions, but there is something that I don't get. To get the images of the linear transformation $f$, being $v$ any vector of $V$ and ${v_1,...,v_n}$ a base of V we do. $f(v) = (v_1 ... v_n)Abegin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ being $begin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ the coordinates of $v$ with the base ${v_1,...,v_n}$. I don't understand which is the relation between that and $Ax=0$.
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 16 at 21:02










    • Let's call $(x_1, x_2,dots, x_n)$ the (unknown) coordinates of a vector $v$ in the kernel. Then $f(v)=Abegin{bmatrix}x_1\x_2\vdots\x_nend{bmatrix}$. So $vinker f$ means the coordinates of $v$ satisfy the linear system of equations defined by $A$.
      – Bernard
      Nov 16 at 21:09












    • Thanks for answering. But what happens with the matrix with the base vectors $(v_1...v_n)$ that are also in the multiplication?
      – Andarrkor
      Nov 17 at 1:34


















    A linear transformation is injective when $Ker f = {0_v}$. But I do not know how to get to the matrix form from there.
    – Andarrkor
    Nov 16 at 20:34




    A linear transformation is injective when $Ker f = {0_v}$. But I do not know how to get to the matrix form from there.
    – Andarrkor
    Nov 16 at 20:34












    I've added some details. Is that clearer now?
    – Bernard
    Nov 16 at 20:42




    I've added some details. Is that clearer now?
    – Bernard
    Nov 16 at 20:42












    Sorry for asking so many questions, but there is something that I don't get. To get the images of the linear transformation $f$, being $v$ any vector of $V$ and ${v_1,...,v_n}$ a base of V we do. $f(v) = (v_1 ... v_n)Abegin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ being $begin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ the coordinates of $v$ with the base ${v_1,...,v_n}$. I don't understand which is the relation between that and $Ax=0$.
    – Andarrkor
    Nov 16 at 21:02




    Sorry for asking so many questions, but there is something that I don't get. To get the images of the linear transformation $f$, being $v$ any vector of $V$ and ${v_1,...,v_n}$ a base of V we do. $f(v) = (v_1 ... v_n)Abegin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ being $begin{bmatrix}lambda_1\...\lambda_nend{bmatrix}$ the coordinates of $v$ with the base ${v_1,...,v_n}$. I don't understand which is the relation between that and $Ax=0$.
    – Andarrkor
    Nov 16 at 21:02












    Let's call $(x_1, x_2,dots, x_n)$ the (unknown) coordinates of a vector $v$ in the kernel. Then $f(v)=Abegin{bmatrix}x_1\x_2\vdots\x_nend{bmatrix}$. So $vinker f$ means the coordinates of $v$ satisfy the linear system of equations defined by $A$.
    – Bernard
    Nov 16 at 21:09






    Let's call $(x_1, x_2,dots, x_n)$ the (unknown) coordinates of a vector $v$ in the kernel. Then $f(v)=Abegin{bmatrix}x_1\x_2\vdots\x_nend{bmatrix}$. So $vinker f$ means the coordinates of $v$ satisfy the linear system of equations defined by $A$.
    – Bernard
    Nov 16 at 21:09














    Thanks for answering. But what happens with the matrix with the base vectors $(v_1...v_n)$ that are also in the multiplication?
    – Andarrkor
    Nov 17 at 1:34






    Thanks for answering. But what happens with the matrix with the base vectors $(v_1...v_n)$ that are also in the multiplication?
    – Andarrkor
    Nov 17 at 1:34












    up vote
    0
    down vote













    To get you started: A matrix operation is invertible if it is injective and surjective. If $Ax=0$ for some non-zero vector $x$, then $A$ is not injective, so it is not invertible. The contrapositive is that $A$ being invertible implies $Ax=0$ only for $x=0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      To get you started: A matrix operation is invertible if it is injective and surjective. If $Ax=0$ for some non-zero vector $x$, then $A$ is not injective, so it is not invertible. The contrapositive is that $A$ being invertible implies $Ax=0$ only for $x=0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        To get you started: A matrix operation is invertible if it is injective and surjective. If $Ax=0$ for some non-zero vector $x$, then $A$ is not injective, so it is not invertible. The contrapositive is that $A$ being invertible implies $Ax=0$ only for $x=0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        To get you started: A matrix operation is invertible if it is injective and surjective. If $Ax=0$ for some non-zero vector $x$, then $A$ is not injective, so it is not invertible. The contrapositive is that $A$ being invertible implies $Ax=0$ only for $x=0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 16 at 19:16









        The Count

        2,30361431




        2,30361431






















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            If $A$ is invertible, then using $Rank-nullity$ $theorem$, we can proove that $text{Ker}(A) = {0}$, so if $A(x) = 0$ then $x=0$.



            Reciprocally, if $A$ meets the condition:



            $ABiggl(begin{matrix} x_1 \ ... \ x_n end{matrix}Biggr)=Biggl(begin{matrix} 0 \ ... \ 0 end{matrix}Biggr)$ then $x_1,...,x_n = 0$, it means that $text{Ker}(A) = {0}$. Using again the $Rank-nullity$ $theorem$, we can prove that $text{Rank}(A) = n$, which ensures us that $A$ is invertible.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • We have learnt the rank-nullity theorem just for lineal applications and not for matrices. So I have to use the linear aplication whose associated matrix is A to prove that. I know that there is a link between them as matrices and linear applications are isomorphic but I do not know how to "pass" from matrices to linear applications and vice versa. Hope you understood my problem.
              – Andarrkor
              Nov 16 at 19:56

















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            If $A$ is invertible, then using $Rank-nullity$ $theorem$, we can proove that $text{Ker}(A) = {0}$, so if $A(x) = 0$ then $x=0$.



            Reciprocally, if $A$ meets the condition:



            $ABiggl(begin{matrix} x_1 \ ... \ x_n end{matrix}Biggr)=Biggl(begin{matrix} 0 \ ... \ 0 end{matrix}Biggr)$ then $x_1,...,x_n = 0$, it means that $text{Ker}(A) = {0}$. Using again the $Rank-nullity$ $theorem$, we can prove that $text{Rank}(A) = n$, which ensures us that $A$ is invertible.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • We have learnt the rank-nullity theorem just for lineal applications and not for matrices. So I have to use the linear aplication whose associated matrix is A to prove that. I know that there is a link between them as matrices and linear applications are isomorphic but I do not know how to "pass" from matrices to linear applications and vice versa. Hope you understood my problem.
              – Andarrkor
              Nov 16 at 19:56















            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            If $A$ is invertible, then using $Rank-nullity$ $theorem$, we can proove that $text{Ker}(A) = {0}$, so if $A(x) = 0$ then $x=0$.



            Reciprocally, if $A$ meets the condition:



            $ABiggl(begin{matrix} x_1 \ ... \ x_n end{matrix}Biggr)=Biggl(begin{matrix} 0 \ ... \ 0 end{matrix}Biggr)$ then $x_1,...,x_n = 0$, it means that $text{Ker}(A) = {0}$. Using again the $Rank-nullity$ $theorem$, we can prove that $text{Rank}(A) = n$, which ensures us that $A$ is invertible.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            If $A$ is invertible, then using $Rank-nullity$ $theorem$, we can proove that $text{Ker}(A) = {0}$, so if $A(x) = 0$ then $x=0$.



            Reciprocally, if $A$ meets the condition:



            $ABiggl(begin{matrix} x_1 \ ... \ x_n end{matrix}Biggr)=Biggl(begin{matrix} 0 \ ... \ 0 end{matrix}Biggr)$ then $x_1,...,x_n = 0$, it means that $text{Ker}(A) = {0}$. Using again the $Rank-nullity$ $theorem$, we can prove that $text{Rank}(A) = n$, which ensures us that $A$ is invertible.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 16 at 19:40









            Euler Pythagoras

            3619




            3619












            • We have learnt the rank-nullity theorem just for lineal applications and not for matrices. So I have to use the linear aplication whose associated matrix is A to prove that. I know that there is a link between them as matrices and linear applications are isomorphic but I do not know how to "pass" from matrices to linear applications and vice versa. Hope you understood my problem.
              – Andarrkor
              Nov 16 at 19:56




















            • We have learnt the rank-nullity theorem just for lineal applications and not for matrices. So I have to use the linear aplication whose associated matrix is A to prove that. I know that there is a link between them as matrices and linear applications are isomorphic but I do not know how to "pass" from matrices to linear applications and vice versa. Hope you understood my problem.
              – Andarrkor
              Nov 16 at 19:56


















            We have learnt the rank-nullity theorem just for lineal applications and not for matrices. So I have to use the linear aplication whose associated matrix is A to prove that. I know that there is a link between them as matrices and linear applications are isomorphic but I do not know how to "pass" from matrices to linear applications and vice versa. Hope you understood my problem.
            – Andarrkor
            Nov 16 at 19:56






            We have learnt the rank-nullity theorem just for lineal applications and not for matrices. So I have to use the linear aplication whose associated matrix is A to prove that. I know that there is a link between them as matrices and linear applications are isomorphic but I do not know how to "pass" from matrices to linear applications and vice versa. Hope you understood my problem.
            – Andarrkor
            Nov 16 at 19:56




















             

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