Is “Night” based on the number 8?











up vote
58
down vote

favorite
5












I have seen on Facebook, a post (in French) claiming that many words for the night are based on a n+respective number for the number 8. For example on this website,



Language      Number 8  night
français huit nuit
anglais eight night
allemand acht nacht
espagnol ocho noche
portugais oito noite
italien otto notte
néerlandais acht nacht
suédois aetta natta
roumain opt noapte
wallon ût nut
occitan uèch nuèch
catalan vuit nit
gascon ueit nueit
picard uit nuit
piedmontais eut neuit
espéranto ok nokto


The post goes even further, claiming that N is a symbol for infinity, and that 8 is the typical infinity symbol rotated.





My first reaction was to dismiss it. But then, I've been thinking about it, and would really like to have reasons to dismiss it.



The infinity symbol dates from 1655 (according to Wikipedia)whereas the word nuit was already in use by 1170 (website in French). Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French). But unfortunately, my knowledge of Latin is by far too limited to investigate further on the Latin.



Actually, the last link mentions that for the author M. Ad. Regnier, studying the Sanskrit, it could be related to the word naked (German: nackt, Latin: nuda).



In English, (the ight deriving from eight sounds worse than some other examples), what I gather is that




Old English niht (West Saxon neaht, Anglian næht, neht) "night, darkness [...] from Proto-Germanic *nahts




which relate as well to nox (Latin), nuks (Old Greek) or naktam (Sanskrit). The same website also indicates that




according to Watkins, probably from a verbal root *neg- "to be dark, be night."




But, if the relation night -> infinity -> infinity symbol -> 8 -> night, sounds improbable, I cannot find definitive information on a possible relation between the number 8 and the night.



Can you help me get down to the bottom of that question?










share|improve this question




















  • 92




    I am a mathematician and have never seen N used as a symbol for infinity.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 19 at 23:33






  • 12




    Related: Linguistics.SE question
    – Oddthinking
    Nov 19 at 23:57






  • 14




    To sum up, hypothesis A: in each of these languages the word "Night" was independently derived from word "eight". Even in man-made Esperanto. Oh, and coincidentally in most of the languages where the word for number 8 does not resemble "O(K)T", the word for the dark period of the day bears little similarity to it. Hypothesis B: "night" and "eight" sounded similar in the ancestor of these languages, therefore they sound similar in modern languages. Looks like a job for Occam's razor.
    – IMil
    Nov 20 at 2:50






  • 58




    @NateEldredge I bet someone thinks that aleph is a fancy N.
    – hobbs
    Nov 20 at 2:53






  • 10




    Regarding the nonsense The post goes even further, claiming that N is a symbol for infinity, and that 8 is the typical infinity number turned. The turned-sideways eight (∞) is a rather recent invention, recent enough that we know exactly who and when: John Wallis in 1655. I do believe people counted to eight and went to bed at night well before 1655.
    – David Hammen
    Nov 20 at 12:09















up vote
58
down vote

favorite
5












I have seen on Facebook, a post (in French) claiming that many words for the night are based on a n+respective number for the number 8. For example on this website,



Language      Number 8  night
français huit nuit
anglais eight night
allemand acht nacht
espagnol ocho noche
portugais oito noite
italien otto notte
néerlandais acht nacht
suédois aetta natta
roumain opt noapte
wallon ût nut
occitan uèch nuèch
catalan vuit nit
gascon ueit nueit
picard uit nuit
piedmontais eut neuit
espéranto ok nokto


The post goes even further, claiming that N is a symbol for infinity, and that 8 is the typical infinity symbol rotated.





My first reaction was to dismiss it. But then, I've been thinking about it, and would really like to have reasons to dismiss it.



The infinity symbol dates from 1655 (according to Wikipedia)whereas the word nuit was already in use by 1170 (website in French). Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French). But unfortunately, my knowledge of Latin is by far too limited to investigate further on the Latin.



Actually, the last link mentions that for the author M. Ad. Regnier, studying the Sanskrit, it could be related to the word naked (German: nackt, Latin: nuda).



In English, (the ight deriving from eight sounds worse than some other examples), what I gather is that




Old English niht (West Saxon neaht, Anglian næht, neht) "night, darkness [...] from Proto-Germanic *nahts




which relate as well to nox (Latin), nuks (Old Greek) or naktam (Sanskrit). The same website also indicates that




according to Watkins, probably from a verbal root *neg- "to be dark, be night."




But, if the relation night -> infinity -> infinity symbol -> 8 -> night, sounds improbable, I cannot find definitive information on a possible relation between the number 8 and the night.



Can you help me get down to the bottom of that question?










share|improve this question




















  • 92




    I am a mathematician and have never seen N used as a symbol for infinity.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 19 at 23:33






  • 12




    Related: Linguistics.SE question
    – Oddthinking
    Nov 19 at 23:57






  • 14




    To sum up, hypothesis A: in each of these languages the word "Night" was independently derived from word "eight". Even in man-made Esperanto. Oh, and coincidentally in most of the languages where the word for number 8 does not resemble "O(K)T", the word for the dark period of the day bears little similarity to it. Hypothesis B: "night" and "eight" sounded similar in the ancestor of these languages, therefore they sound similar in modern languages. Looks like a job for Occam's razor.
    – IMil
    Nov 20 at 2:50






  • 58




    @NateEldredge I bet someone thinks that aleph is a fancy N.
    – hobbs
    Nov 20 at 2:53






  • 10




    Regarding the nonsense The post goes even further, claiming that N is a symbol for infinity, and that 8 is the typical infinity number turned. The turned-sideways eight (∞) is a rather recent invention, recent enough that we know exactly who and when: John Wallis in 1655. I do believe people counted to eight and went to bed at night well before 1655.
    – David Hammen
    Nov 20 at 12:09













up vote
58
down vote

favorite
5









up vote
58
down vote

favorite
5






5





I have seen on Facebook, a post (in French) claiming that many words for the night are based on a n+respective number for the number 8. For example on this website,



Language      Number 8  night
français huit nuit
anglais eight night
allemand acht nacht
espagnol ocho noche
portugais oito noite
italien otto notte
néerlandais acht nacht
suédois aetta natta
roumain opt noapte
wallon ût nut
occitan uèch nuèch
catalan vuit nit
gascon ueit nueit
picard uit nuit
piedmontais eut neuit
espéranto ok nokto


The post goes even further, claiming that N is a symbol for infinity, and that 8 is the typical infinity symbol rotated.





My first reaction was to dismiss it. But then, I've been thinking about it, and would really like to have reasons to dismiss it.



The infinity symbol dates from 1655 (according to Wikipedia)whereas the word nuit was already in use by 1170 (website in French). Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French). But unfortunately, my knowledge of Latin is by far too limited to investigate further on the Latin.



Actually, the last link mentions that for the author M. Ad. Regnier, studying the Sanskrit, it could be related to the word naked (German: nackt, Latin: nuda).



In English, (the ight deriving from eight sounds worse than some other examples), what I gather is that




Old English niht (West Saxon neaht, Anglian næht, neht) "night, darkness [...] from Proto-Germanic *nahts




which relate as well to nox (Latin), nuks (Old Greek) or naktam (Sanskrit). The same website also indicates that




according to Watkins, probably from a verbal root *neg- "to be dark, be night."




But, if the relation night -> infinity -> infinity symbol -> 8 -> night, sounds improbable, I cannot find definitive information on a possible relation between the number 8 and the night.



Can you help me get down to the bottom of that question?










share|improve this question















I have seen on Facebook, a post (in French) claiming that many words for the night are based on a n+respective number for the number 8. For example on this website,



Language      Number 8  night
français huit nuit
anglais eight night
allemand acht nacht
espagnol ocho noche
portugais oito noite
italien otto notte
néerlandais acht nacht
suédois aetta natta
roumain opt noapte
wallon ût nut
occitan uèch nuèch
catalan vuit nit
gascon ueit nueit
picard uit nuit
piedmontais eut neuit
espéranto ok nokto


The post goes even further, claiming that N is a symbol for infinity, and that 8 is the typical infinity symbol rotated.





My first reaction was to dismiss it. But then, I've been thinking about it, and would really like to have reasons to dismiss it.



The infinity symbol dates from 1655 (according to Wikipedia)whereas the word nuit was already in use by 1170 (website in French). Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French). But unfortunately, my knowledge of Latin is by far too limited to investigate further on the Latin.



Actually, the last link mentions that for the author M. Ad. Regnier, studying the Sanskrit, it could be related to the word naked (German: nackt, Latin: nuda).



In English, (the ight deriving from eight sounds worse than some other examples), what I gather is that




Old English niht (West Saxon neaht, Anglian næht, neht) "night, darkness [...] from Proto-Germanic *nahts




which relate as well to nox (Latin), nuks (Old Greek) or naktam (Sanskrit). The same website also indicates that




according to Watkins, probably from a verbal root *neg- "to be dark, be night."




But, if the relation night -> infinity -> infinity symbol -> 8 -> night, sounds improbable, I cannot find definitive information on a possible relation between the number 8 and the night.



Can you help me get down to the bottom of that question?







etymology






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share|improve this question













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edited Nov 20 at 12:43









terdon

291213




291213










asked Nov 19 at 22:12









bilbo_pingouin

443148




443148








  • 92




    I am a mathematician and have never seen N used as a symbol for infinity.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 19 at 23:33






  • 12




    Related: Linguistics.SE question
    – Oddthinking
    Nov 19 at 23:57






  • 14




    To sum up, hypothesis A: in each of these languages the word "Night" was independently derived from word "eight". Even in man-made Esperanto. Oh, and coincidentally in most of the languages where the word for number 8 does not resemble "O(K)T", the word for the dark period of the day bears little similarity to it. Hypothesis B: "night" and "eight" sounded similar in the ancestor of these languages, therefore they sound similar in modern languages. Looks like a job for Occam's razor.
    – IMil
    Nov 20 at 2:50






  • 58




    @NateEldredge I bet someone thinks that aleph is a fancy N.
    – hobbs
    Nov 20 at 2:53






  • 10




    Regarding the nonsense The post goes even further, claiming that N is a symbol for infinity, and that 8 is the typical infinity number turned. The turned-sideways eight (∞) is a rather recent invention, recent enough that we know exactly who and when: John Wallis in 1655. I do believe people counted to eight and went to bed at night well before 1655.
    – David Hammen
    Nov 20 at 12:09














  • 92




    I am a mathematician and have never seen N used as a symbol for infinity.
    – Nate Eldredge
    Nov 19 at 23:33






  • 12




    Related: Linguistics.SE question
    – Oddthinking
    Nov 19 at 23:57






  • 14




    To sum up, hypothesis A: in each of these languages the word "Night" was independently derived from word "eight". Even in man-made Esperanto. Oh, and coincidentally in most of the languages where the word for number 8 does not resemble "O(K)T", the word for the dark period of the day bears little similarity to it. Hypothesis B: "night" and "eight" sounded similar in the ancestor of these languages, therefore they sound similar in modern languages. Looks like a job for Occam's razor.
    – IMil
    Nov 20 at 2:50






  • 58




    @NateEldredge I bet someone thinks that aleph is a fancy N.
    – hobbs
    Nov 20 at 2:53






  • 10




    Regarding the nonsense The post goes even further, claiming that N is a symbol for infinity, and that 8 is the typical infinity number turned. The turned-sideways eight (∞) is a rather recent invention, recent enough that we know exactly who and when: John Wallis in 1655. I do believe people counted to eight and went to bed at night well before 1655.
    – David Hammen
    Nov 20 at 12:09








92




92




I am a mathematician and have never seen N used as a symbol for infinity.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 19 at 23:33




I am a mathematician and have never seen N used as a symbol for infinity.
– Nate Eldredge
Nov 19 at 23:33




12




12




Related: Linguistics.SE question
– Oddthinking
Nov 19 at 23:57




Related: Linguistics.SE question
– Oddthinking
Nov 19 at 23:57




14




14




To sum up, hypothesis A: in each of these languages the word "Night" was independently derived from word "eight". Even in man-made Esperanto. Oh, and coincidentally in most of the languages where the word for number 8 does not resemble "O(K)T", the word for the dark period of the day bears little similarity to it. Hypothesis B: "night" and "eight" sounded similar in the ancestor of these languages, therefore they sound similar in modern languages. Looks like a job for Occam's razor.
– IMil
Nov 20 at 2:50




To sum up, hypothesis A: in each of these languages the word "Night" was independently derived from word "eight". Even in man-made Esperanto. Oh, and coincidentally in most of the languages where the word for number 8 does not resemble "O(K)T", the word for the dark period of the day bears little similarity to it. Hypothesis B: "night" and "eight" sounded similar in the ancestor of these languages, therefore they sound similar in modern languages. Looks like a job for Occam's razor.
– IMil
Nov 20 at 2:50




58




58




@NateEldredge I bet someone thinks that aleph is a fancy N.
– hobbs
Nov 20 at 2:53




@NateEldredge I bet someone thinks that aleph is a fancy N.
– hobbs
Nov 20 at 2:53




10




10




Regarding the nonsense The post goes even further, claiming that N is a symbol for infinity, and that 8 is the typical infinity number turned. The turned-sideways eight (∞) is a rather recent invention, recent enough that we know exactly who and when: John Wallis in 1655. I do believe people counted to eight and went to bed at night well before 1655.
– David Hammen
Nov 20 at 12:09




Regarding the nonsense The post goes even further, claiming that N is a symbol for infinity, and that 8 is the typical infinity number turned. The turned-sideways eight (∞) is a rather recent invention, recent enough that we know exactly who and when: John Wallis in 1655. I do believe people counted to eight and went to bed at night well before 1655.
– David Hammen
Nov 20 at 12:09










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
78
down vote













No, they are unrelated.



Some Proto-Indo-European language (PIE) reconstructions from Wiktionary:




  • "eight": "oḱtṓw" (claimed to be a dual of "four fingers")

  • "night": "nókʷts" (possibly from "bare, naked")


As @Schmuddi mentioned in a comment above, it looks just like a coincidence (slightly similar proto-language words). The rest looks like an urban legend.






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bobbib is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








Some of the information contained in this post requires additional references. Please edit to add citations to reliable sources that support the assertions made here. Unsourced material may be disputed or deleted.










  • 5




    Welcome to Skeptics! Wiktionary doesn't appear to have any references for the comparative analysis that lead to these conclusions. Is there any reason we should accept these reconstructions on Wiktionary over the claims in the original post?
    – Oddthinking
    Nov 20 at 0:20






  • 1




    Hi @Oddthinking! Oh, I'm sorry for that quick-and-dirty answer; it just had a nice comparative list, so I thought it would be helpful. Anyway, we also can edit Wiktionary to add respectable links there :-)
    – bobbib
    Nov 20 at 0:49






  • 8




    We generally don't accept wikis as good references for this reason. I would normally recommend following the links the wiki site gives to get direct references, but that isn't possble here.
    – Oddthinking
    Nov 20 at 2:56






  • 8




    @Oddthinking There are several etymological dictionaries of Indo-European languages that confirm that these two reconstructions are the generally accepted ones (with slight variations – I would reconstruct ‘eight’ as *óḱtōu̯ with initial stress, for example), but unfortunately none of them are easily available online. Many of them are referenced on the *nókʷts page on Wikipedia, but they exist in paper form only.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Nov 20 at 17:48






  • 3




    @JanusBahsJacquet: Feel free to quote from (paper) books you have access to.
    – Oddthinking
    2 days ago


















up vote
47
down vote













In English "eight" and "night" came from different words, "ehte" and "niht" respectively, which have both undergone a common substitution of -gh- for a hard "h", which was a Middle English scribal habit.



In French, "huit" came from "uit" when an "h" was added to avoid confusion with "vit". As for "nuit", it's a transformation of old French "nuict" derived from latin "noctem", which is an inclination of "nox".



The etymological link can be tracked further down, but the two words remain distinct, albeit similar.



So at least for English and French, the similarity between these two words is not due to a common root, but rather to similar ancestor words, and in some cases common transformations which contributed to the similarity of modern forms. I don't know other languages in your list, but they all seem to be either Latin or Germanic, so they likely share their etymological transformation with French and English respectively.






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    up vote
    26
    down vote













    To pile on the answers debunking a particular language:
    The list misspells both Swedish words to make them look more similar than they are. "Åtta" (number eight) is misspelled as "aetta" and "natt" (night) is misspelled as "natta".



    "Åtta" /ˈɔtːa/ and "natt" /nat:/ are not very alike as I'm sure most will agree.



    Count this as another vote for occam's razor and this being an urban legend.



    (Source: My Swedish dictionary. Wiktionary unfortunately is short on IPA for these but consider it "common knowledge"...)






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    Jolta is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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    Some of the information contained in this post requires additional references. Please edit to add citations to reliable sources that support the assertions made here. Unsourced material may be disputed or deleted.










    • 6




      I disagree that åtta and natt are not alike, but my opinion isn't important - and neither is yours. Please provide some references to support your claims about etymology. [I don't think there is a need to cite the common modern Swedish words, but this is about etymology, not the current pronunication and spelling.]
      – Oddthinking
      2 days ago






    • 5




      lol. they are completely different have nothing in common except for having two t's in them.
      – dan-klasson
      2 days ago






    • 3




      @dan-klasson: To most non-Scandinavians, åtta and natt will look if anything more similar than aetta and natta, since å looks just like a slight variant of a, so both words look like they have an att core. (I’m well aware that in Swedish they’re pronounced quite differently and thought of as quite different letters; I’m talking about how they’re perceived by people who don’t know any Swedish.)
      – PLL
      yesterday










    • @dan-klasson: In the claim "vuit" and "nit" are considered close. I emphasize, my opinion isn't important. What is important is references to support claims, and this answer lacks them.
      – Oddthinking
      12 hours ago


















    up vote
    -2
    down vote













    Roberts French dictionary says that nuit (night) comes from the Latin noctis meaning nocturnal (vient du latin nox, noctis → noctambule, nocturne).






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    • 2




      Maybe I am. But n+octo (8 in Latin) falls also pretty close to noctis.
      – bilbo_pingouin
      Nov 19 at 22:56








    • 2




      Welcome to Skeptics! Can you please give a more precise reference? What dictionary is that, and which edition?
      – Oddthinking
      Nov 19 at 23:55






    • 30




      I think I'm missing something. Doesn't this answer just explain that the French word for "night" is related to a Latin root that also refers to "night" (which is not surprising at all given that French is a language that developed from Latin)?
      – Schmuddi
      Nov 19 at 23:58






    • 7




      In the body of the question it says "Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French)." This doesn't provide anything that wasn't already mentioned in the question.
      – JMac
      Nov 20 at 12:03


















    up vote
    -2
    down vote













    No, night and day come from old Norse.



    https://glosbe.com/en/non/night




    nátt { noun feminine }
    The period between sunset and sunrise, when a location faces far away from the sun, thus when the sky is dark.




    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/N%C3%B3tt




    In Norse mythology, Nótt (Old Norse "night"[1]) is night personified, grandmother of Thor.




    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dagr




    In Norse mythology, Dagr (Old Norse "day"[1]) is day personified.




    Old Norse blended with early Germanic languages, from which English is derived.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 9




      Your last sentence is either badly worded or just plainly wrong. First, Old Norse is not a particularly old language; Old English is at least 200 years older. Second, both languages are Germanic languages, but belong to different branches (West and North Germanic, respectively). Third, while Old Norse did have an influence on Old English when there were Scandinavian settlers in England during the 9th (and partly 10th) century, it's completely misleading to claim that English is derived in any way from Old Norse. In particular, night is of West Germanic origin, and not derived via Old Norse.
      – Schmuddi
      yesterday












    • OK You could say night is a loanword from old Norse, just like the days of the week and compass directions.
      – Chloe
      yesterday








    • 5




      No, it's just wrong to say that English borrowed night from Old Norse. In basically all West Germanic languages (such as English, Dutch and German) as well as North Germanic languages (such as Swedish or Danish) the word has descended from the same prehistoric Germanic root *nakht. The relation between the Old English word for night and the Old Norse one is as best as close as that between you and your niece.The same is also true for day and the words for compass directions. Really, please get your facts right – this can easily checked with any etymological dictionary.
      – Schmuddi
      yesterday












    • This answer is factually incorrect in pretty much every aspect. Night and day in English are completely separate from their Old Norse forms. They were not borrowed, nor inherited, nor in any other way influenced by the Old Norse forms; they developed quite independently within English. This is quite easily seen from the facts that (a) night retains its ⟨gh⟩ which was written as ⟨ch⟩ (and pronounced!) long after Old Norse, and (b) day was written with ⟨æ⟩ for centuries, a letter not used to represent ON /a/. Dagr borrowed into OE would probably have yielded *daw instead.
      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      6 hours ago



















    5 Answers
    5






    active

    oldest

    votes








    5 Answers
    5






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    78
    down vote













    No, they are unrelated.



    Some Proto-Indo-European language (PIE) reconstructions from Wiktionary:




    • "eight": "oḱtṓw" (claimed to be a dual of "four fingers")

    • "night": "nókʷts" (possibly from "bare, naked")


    As @Schmuddi mentioned in a comment above, it looks just like a coincidence (slightly similar proto-language words). The rest looks like an urban legend.






    share|improve this answer










    New contributor




    bobbib is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.








    Some of the information contained in this post requires additional references. Please edit to add citations to reliable sources that support the assertions made here. Unsourced material may be disputed or deleted.










    • 5




      Welcome to Skeptics! Wiktionary doesn't appear to have any references for the comparative analysis that lead to these conclusions. Is there any reason we should accept these reconstructions on Wiktionary over the claims in the original post?
      – Oddthinking
      Nov 20 at 0:20






    • 1




      Hi @Oddthinking! Oh, I'm sorry for that quick-and-dirty answer; it just had a nice comparative list, so I thought it would be helpful. Anyway, we also can edit Wiktionary to add respectable links there :-)
      – bobbib
      Nov 20 at 0:49






    • 8




      We generally don't accept wikis as good references for this reason. I would normally recommend following the links the wiki site gives to get direct references, but that isn't possble here.
      – Oddthinking
      Nov 20 at 2:56






    • 8




      @Oddthinking There are several etymological dictionaries of Indo-European languages that confirm that these two reconstructions are the generally accepted ones (with slight variations – I would reconstruct ‘eight’ as *óḱtōu̯ with initial stress, for example), but unfortunately none of them are easily available online. Many of them are referenced on the *nókʷts page on Wikipedia, but they exist in paper form only.
      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      Nov 20 at 17:48






    • 3




      @JanusBahsJacquet: Feel free to quote from (paper) books you have access to.
      – Oddthinking
      2 days ago















    up vote
    78
    down vote













    No, they are unrelated.



    Some Proto-Indo-European language (PIE) reconstructions from Wiktionary:




    • "eight": "oḱtṓw" (claimed to be a dual of "four fingers")

    • "night": "nókʷts" (possibly from "bare, naked")


    As @Schmuddi mentioned in a comment above, it looks just like a coincidence (slightly similar proto-language words). The rest looks like an urban legend.






    share|improve this answer










    New contributor




    bobbib is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.








    Some of the information contained in this post requires additional references. Please edit to add citations to reliable sources that support the assertions made here. Unsourced material may be disputed or deleted.










    • 5




      Welcome to Skeptics! Wiktionary doesn't appear to have any references for the comparative analysis that lead to these conclusions. Is there any reason we should accept these reconstructions on Wiktionary over the claims in the original post?
      – Oddthinking
      Nov 20 at 0:20






    • 1




      Hi @Oddthinking! Oh, I'm sorry for that quick-and-dirty answer; it just had a nice comparative list, so I thought it would be helpful. Anyway, we also can edit Wiktionary to add respectable links there :-)
      – bobbib
      Nov 20 at 0:49






    • 8




      We generally don't accept wikis as good references for this reason. I would normally recommend following the links the wiki site gives to get direct references, but that isn't possble here.
      – Oddthinking
      Nov 20 at 2:56






    • 8




      @Oddthinking There are several etymological dictionaries of Indo-European languages that confirm that these two reconstructions are the generally accepted ones (with slight variations – I would reconstruct ‘eight’ as *óḱtōu̯ with initial stress, for example), but unfortunately none of them are easily available online. Many of them are referenced on the *nókʷts page on Wikipedia, but they exist in paper form only.
      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      Nov 20 at 17:48






    • 3




      @JanusBahsJacquet: Feel free to quote from (paper) books you have access to.
      – Oddthinking
      2 days ago













    up vote
    78
    down vote










    up vote
    78
    down vote









    No, they are unrelated.



    Some Proto-Indo-European language (PIE) reconstructions from Wiktionary:




    • "eight": "oḱtṓw" (claimed to be a dual of "four fingers")

    • "night": "nókʷts" (possibly from "bare, naked")


    As @Schmuddi mentioned in a comment above, it looks just like a coincidence (slightly similar proto-language words). The rest looks like an urban legend.






    share|improve this answer










    New contributor




    bobbib is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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    No, they are unrelated.



    Some Proto-Indo-European language (PIE) reconstructions from Wiktionary:




    • "eight": "oḱtṓw" (claimed to be a dual of "four fingers")

    • "night": "nókʷts" (possibly from "bare, naked")


    As @Schmuddi mentioned in a comment above, it looks just like a coincidence (slightly similar proto-language words). The rest looks like an urban legend.







    share|improve this answer










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    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited Nov 20 at 0:17









    Oddthinking

    98.4k31409515




    98.4k31409515






    New contributor




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    answered Nov 20 at 0:09









    bobbib

    65114




    65114




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    New contributor





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    bobbib is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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    Some of the information contained in this post requires additional references. Please edit to add citations to reliable sources that support the assertions made here. Unsourced material may be disputed or deleted.




    Some of the information contained in this post requires additional references. Please edit to add citations to reliable sources that support the assertions made here. Unsourced material may be disputed or deleted.









    • 5




      Welcome to Skeptics! Wiktionary doesn't appear to have any references for the comparative analysis that lead to these conclusions. Is there any reason we should accept these reconstructions on Wiktionary over the claims in the original post?
      – Oddthinking
      Nov 20 at 0:20






    • 1




      Hi @Oddthinking! Oh, I'm sorry for that quick-and-dirty answer; it just had a nice comparative list, so I thought it would be helpful. Anyway, we also can edit Wiktionary to add respectable links there :-)
      – bobbib
      Nov 20 at 0:49






    • 8




      We generally don't accept wikis as good references for this reason. I would normally recommend following the links the wiki site gives to get direct references, but that isn't possble here.
      – Oddthinking
      Nov 20 at 2:56






    • 8




      @Oddthinking There are several etymological dictionaries of Indo-European languages that confirm that these two reconstructions are the generally accepted ones (with slight variations – I would reconstruct ‘eight’ as *óḱtōu̯ with initial stress, for example), but unfortunately none of them are easily available online. Many of them are referenced on the *nókʷts page on Wikipedia, but they exist in paper form only.
      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      Nov 20 at 17:48






    • 3




      @JanusBahsJacquet: Feel free to quote from (paper) books you have access to.
      – Oddthinking
      2 days ago














    • 5




      Welcome to Skeptics! Wiktionary doesn't appear to have any references for the comparative analysis that lead to these conclusions. Is there any reason we should accept these reconstructions on Wiktionary over the claims in the original post?
      – Oddthinking
      Nov 20 at 0:20






    • 1




      Hi @Oddthinking! Oh, I'm sorry for that quick-and-dirty answer; it just had a nice comparative list, so I thought it would be helpful. Anyway, we also can edit Wiktionary to add respectable links there :-)
      – bobbib
      Nov 20 at 0:49






    • 8




      We generally don't accept wikis as good references for this reason. I would normally recommend following the links the wiki site gives to get direct references, but that isn't possble here.
      – Oddthinking
      Nov 20 at 2:56






    • 8




      @Oddthinking There are several etymological dictionaries of Indo-European languages that confirm that these two reconstructions are the generally accepted ones (with slight variations – I would reconstruct ‘eight’ as *óḱtōu̯ with initial stress, for example), but unfortunately none of them are easily available online. Many of them are referenced on the *nókʷts page on Wikipedia, but they exist in paper form only.
      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      Nov 20 at 17:48






    • 3




      @JanusBahsJacquet: Feel free to quote from (paper) books you have access to.
      – Oddthinking
      2 days ago








    5




    5




    Welcome to Skeptics! Wiktionary doesn't appear to have any references for the comparative analysis that lead to these conclusions. Is there any reason we should accept these reconstructions on Wiktionary over the claims in the original post?
    – Oddthinking
    Nov 20 at 0:20




    Welcome to Skeptics! Wiktionary doesn't appear to have any references for the comparative analysis that lead to these conclusions. Is there any reason we should accept these reconstructions on Wiktionary over the claims in the original post?
    – Oddthinking
    Nov 20 at 0:20




    1




    1




    Hi @Oddthinking! Oh, I'm sorry for that quick-and-dirty answer; it just had a nice comparative list, so I thought it would be helpful. Anyway, we also can edit Wiktionary to add respectable links there :-)
    – bobbib
    Nov 20 at 0:49




    Hi @Oddthinking! Oh, I'm sorry for that quick-and-dirty answer; it just had a nice comparative list, so I thought it would be helpful. Anyway, we also can edit Wiktionary to add respectable links there :-)
    – bobbib
    Nov 20 at 0:49




    8




    8




    We generally don't accept wikis as good references for this reason. I would normally recommend following the links the wiki site gives to get direct references, but that isn't possble here.
    – Oddthinking
    Nov 20 at 2:56




    We generally don't accept wikis as good references for this reason. I would normally recommend following the links the wiki site gives to get direct references, but that isn't possble here.
    – Oddthinking
    Nov 20 at 2:56




    8




    8




    @Oddthinking There are several etymological dictionaries of Indo-European languages that confirm that these two reconstructions are the generally accepted ones (with slight variations – I would reconstruct ‘eight’ as *óḱtōu̯ with initial stress, for example), but unfortunately none of them are easily available online. Many of them are referenced on the *nókʷts page on Wikipedia, but they exist in paper form only.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Nov 20 at 17:48




    @Oddthinking There are several etymological dictionaries of Indo-European languages that confirm that these two reconstructions are the generally accepted ones (with slight variations – I would reconstruct ‘eight’ as *óḱtōu̯ with initial stress, for example), but unfortunately none of them are easily available online. Many of them are referenced on the *nókʷts page on Wikipedia, but they exist in paper form only.
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Nov 20 at 17:48




    3




    3




    @JanusBahsJacquet: Feel free to quote from (paper) books you have access to.
    – Oddthinking
    2 days ago




    @JanusBahsJacquet: Feel free to quote from (paper) books you have access to.
    – Oddthinking
    2 days ago










    up vote
    47
    down vote













    In English "eight" and "night" came from different words, "ehte" and "niht" respectively, which have both undergone a common substitution of -gh- for a hard "h", which was a Middle English scribal habit.



    In French, "huit" came from "uit" when an "h" was added to avoid confusion with "vit". As for "nuit", it's a transformation of old French "nuict" derived from latin "noctem", which is an inclination of "nox".



    The etymological link can be tracked further down, but the two words remain distinct, albeit similar.



    So at least for English and French, the similarity between these two words is not due to a common root, but rather to similar ancestor words, and in some cases common transformations which contributed to the similarity of modern forms. I don't know other languages in your list, but they all seem to be either Latin or Germanic, so they likely share their etymological transformation with French and English respectively.






    share|improve this answer



























      up vote
      47
      down vote













      In English "eight" and "night" came from different words, "ehte" and "niht" respectively, which have both undergone a common substitution of -gh- for a hard "h", which was a Middle English scribal habit.



      In French, "huit" came from "uit" when an "h" was added to avoid confusion with "vit". As for "nuit", it's a transformation of old French "nuict" derived from latin "noctem", which is an inclination of "nox".



      The etymological link can be tracked further down, but the two words remain distinct, albeit similar.



      So at least for English and French, the similarity between these two words is not due to a common root, but rather to similar ancestor words, and in some cases common transformations which contributed to the similarity of modern forms. I don't know other languages in your list, but they all seem to be either Latin or Germanic, so they likely share their etymological transformation with French and English respectively.






      share|improve this answer

























        up vote
        47
        down vote










        up vote
        47
        down vote









        In English "eight" and "night" came from different words, "ehte" and "niht" respectively, which have both undergone a common substitution of -gh- for a hard "h", which was a Middle English scribal habit.



        In French, "huit" came from "uit" when an "h" was added to avoid confusion with "vit". As for "nuit", it's a transformation of old French "nuict" derived from latin "noctem", which is an inclination of "nox".



        The etymological link can be tracked further down, but the two words remain distinct, albeit similar.



        So at least for English and French, the similarity between these two words is not due to a common root, but rather to similar ancestor words, and in some cases common transformations which contributed to the similarity of modern forms. I don't know other languages in your list, but they all seem to be either Latin or Germanic, so they likely share their etymological transformation with French and English respectively.






        share|improve this answer














        In English "eight" and "night" came from different words, "ehte" and "niht" respectively, which have both undergone a common substitution of -gh- for a hard "h", which was a Middle English scribal habit.



        In French, "huit" came from "uit" when an "h" was added to avoid confusion with "vit". As for "nuit", it's a transformation of old French "nuict" derived from latin "noctem", which is an inclination of "nox".



        The etymological link can be tracked further down, but the two words remain distinct, albeit similar.



        So at least for English and French, the similarity between these two words is not due to a common root, but rather to similar ancestor words, and in some cases common transformations which contributed to the similarity of modern forms. I don't know other languages in your list, but they all seem to be either Latin or Germanic, so they likely share their etymological transformation with French and English respectively.







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited Nov 20 at 22:17

























        answered Nov 20 at 8:09









        Dmitry Grigoryev

        884415




        884415






















            up vote
            26
            down vote













            To pile on the answers debunking a particular language:
            The list misspells both Swedish words to make them look more similar than they are. "Åtta" (number eight) is misspelled as "aetta" and "natt" (night) is misspelled as "natta".



            "Åtta" /ˈɔtːa/ and "natt" /nat:/ are not very alike as I'm sure most will agree.



            Count this as another vote for occam's razor and this being an urban legend.



            (Source: My Swedish dictionary. Wiktionary unfortunately is short on IPA for these but consider it "common knowledge"...)






            share|improve this answer










            New contributor




            Jolta is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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            Some of the information contained in this post requires additional references. Please edit to add citations to reliable sources that support the assertions made here. Unsourced material may be disputed or deleted.










            • 6




              I disagree that åtta and natt are not alike, but my opinion isn't important - and neither is yours. Please provide some references to support your claims about etymology. [I don't think there is a need to cite the common modern Swedish words, but this is about etymology, not the current pronunication and spelling.]
              – Oddthinking
              2 days ago






            • 5




              lol. they are completely different have nothing in common except for having two t's in them.
              – dan-klasson
              2 days ago






            • 3




              @dan-klasson: To most non-Scandinavians, åtta and natt will look if anything more similar than aetta and natta, since å looks just like a slight variant of a, so both words look like they have an att core. (I’m well aware that in Swedish they’re pronounced quite differently and thought of as quite different letters; I’m talking about how they’re perceived by people who don’t know any Swedish.)
              – PLL
              yesterday










            • @dan-klasson: In the claim "vuit" and "nit" are considered close. I emphasize, my opinion isn't important. What is important is references to support claims, and this answer lacks them.
              – Oddthinking
              12 hours ago















            up vote
            26
            down vote













            To pile on the answers debunking a particular language:
            The list misspells both Swedish words to make them look more similar than they are. "Åtta" (number eight) is misspelled as "aetta" and "natt" (night) is misspelled as "natta".



            "Åtta" /ˈɔtːa/ and "natt" /nat:/ are not very alike as I'm sure most will agree.



            Count this as another vote for occam's razor and this being an urban legend.



            (Source: My Swedish dictionary. Wiktionary unfortunately is short on IPA for these but consider it "common knowledge"...)






            share|improve this answer










            New contributor




            Jolta is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.








            Some of the information contained in this post requires additional references. Please edit to add citations to reliable sources that support the assertions made here. Unsourced material may be disputed or deleted.










            • 6




              I disagree that åtta and natt are not alike, but my opinion isn't important - and neither is yours. Please provide some references to support your claims about etymology. [I don't think there is a need to cite the common modern Swedish words, but this is about etymology, not the current pronunication and spelling.]
              – Oddthinking
              2 days ago






            • 5




              lol. they are completely different have nothing in common except for having two t's in them.
              – dan-klasson
              2 days ago






            • 3




              @dan-klasson: To most non-Scandinavians, åtta and natt will look if anything more similar than aetta and natta, since å looks just like a slight variant of a, so both words look like they have an att core. (I’m well aware that in Swedish they’re pronounced quite differently and thought of as quite different letters; I’m talking about how they’re perceived by people who don’t know any Swedish.)
              – PLL
              yesterday










            • @dan-klasson: In the claim "vuit" and "nit" are considered close. I emphasize, my opinion isn't important. What is important is references to support claims, and this answer lacks them.
              – Oddthinking
              12 hours ago













            up vote
            26
            down vote










            up vote
            26
            down vote









            To pile on the answers debunking a particular language:
            The list misspells both Swedish words to make them look more similar than they are. "Åtta" (number eight) is misspelled as "aetta" and "natt" (night) is misspelled as "natta".



            "Åtta" /ˈɔtːa/ and "natt" /nat:/ are not very alike as I'm sure most will agree.



            Count this as another vote for occam's razor and this being an urban legend.



            (Source: My Swedish dictionary. Wiktionary unfortunately is short on IPA for these but consider it "common knowledge"...)






            share|improve this answer










            New contributor




            Jolta is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.









            To pile on the answers debunking a particular language:
            The list misspells both Swedish words to make them look more similar than they are. "Åtta" (number eight) is misspelled as "aetta" and "natt" (night) is misspelled as "natta".



            "Åtta" /ˈɔtːa/ and "natt" /nat:/ are not very alike as I'm sure most will agree.



            Count this as another vote for occam's razor and this being an urban legend.



            (Source: My Swedish dictionary. Wiktionary unfortunately is short on IPA for these but consider it "common knowledge"...)







            share|improve this answer










            New contributor




            Jolta is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer








            edited Nov 20 at 14:51





















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            answered Nov 20 at 11:59









            Jolta

            36914




            36914




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            New contributor





            Jolta is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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            Jolta is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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            Some of the information contained in this post requires additional references. Please edit to add citations to reliable sources that support the assertions made here. Unsourced material may be disputed or deleted.




            Some of the information contained in this post requires additional references. Please edit to add citations to reliable sources that support the assertions made here. Unsourced material may be disputed or deleted.









            • 6




              I disagree that åtta and natt are not alike, but my opinion isn't important - and neither is yours. Please provide some references to support your claims about etymology. [I don't think there is a need to cite the common modern Swedish words, but this is about etymology, not the current pronunication and spelling.]
              – Oddthinking
              2 days ago






            • 5




              lol. they are completely different have nothing in common except for having two t's in them.
              – dan-klasson
              2 days ago






            • 3




              @dan-klasson: To most non-Scandinavians, åtta and natt will look if anything more similar than aetta and natta, since å looks just like a slight variant of a, so both words look like they have an att core. (I’m well aware that in Swedish they’re pronounced quite differently and thought of as quite different letters; I’m talking about how they’re perceived by people who don’t know any Swedish.)
              – PLL
              yesterday










            • @dan-klasson: In the claim "vuit" and "nit" are considered close. I emphasize, my opinion isn't important. What is important is references to support claims, and this answer lacks them.
              – Oddthinking
              12 hours ago














            • 6




              I disagree that åtta and natt are not alike, but my opinion isn't important - and neither is yours. Please provide some references to support your claims about etymology. [I don't think there is a need to cite the common modern Swedish words, but this is about etymology, not the current pronunication and spelling.]
              – Oddthinking
              2 days ago






            • 5




              lol. they are completely different have nothing in common except for having two t's in them.
              – dan-klasson
              2 days ago






            • 3




              @dan-klasson: To most non-Scandinavians, åtta and natt will look if anything more similar than aetta and natta, since å looks just like a slight variant of a, so both words look like they have an att core. (I’m well aware that in Swedish they’re pronounced quite differently and thought of as quite different letters; I’m talking about how they’re perceived by people who don’t know any Swedish.)
              – PLL
              yesterday










            • @dan-klasson: In the claim "vuit" and "nit" are considered close. I emphasize, my opinion isn't important. What is important is references to support claims, and this answer lacks them.
              – Oddthinking
              12 hours ago








            6




            6




            I disagree that åtta and natt are not alike, but my opinion isn't important - and neither is yours. Please provide some references to support your claims about etymology. [I don't think there is a need to cite the common modern Swedish words, but this is about etymology, not the current pronunication and spelling.]
            – Oddthinking
            2 days ago




            I disagree that åtta and natt are not alike, but my opinion isn't important - and neither is yours. Please provide some references to support your claims about etymology. [I don't think there is a need to cite the common modern Swedish words, but this is about etymology, not the current pronunication and spelling.]
            – Oddthinking
            2 days ago




            5




            5




            lol. they are completely different have nothing in common except for having two t's in them.
            – dan-klasson
            2 days ago




            lol. they are completely different have nothing in common except for having two t's in them.
            – dan-klasson
            2 days ago




            3




            3




            @dan-klasson: To most non-Scandinavians, åtta and natt will look if anything more similar than aetta and natta, since å looks just like a slight variant of a, so both words look like they have an att core. (I’m well aware that in Swedish they’re pronounced quite differently and thought of as quite different letters; I’m talking about how they’re perceived by people who don’t know any Swedish.)
            – PLL
            yesterday




            @dan-klasson: To most non-Scandinavians, åtta and natt will look if anything more similar than aetta and natta, since å looks just like a slight variant of a, so both words look like they have an att core. (I’m well aware that in Swedish they’re pronounced quite differently and thought of as quite different letters; I’m talking about how they’re perceived by people who don’t know any Swedish.)
            – PLL
            yesterday












            @dan-klasson: In the claim "vuit" and "nit" are considered close. I emphasize, my opinion isn't important. What is important is references to support claims, and this answer lacks them.
            – Oddthinking
            12 hours ago




            @dan-klasson: In the claim "vuit" and "nit" are considered close. I emphasize, my opinion isn't important. What is important is references to support claims, and this answer lacks them.
            – Oddthinking
            12 hours ago










            up vote
            -2
            down vote













            Roberts French dictionary says that nuit (night) comes from the Latin noctis meaning nocturnal (vient du latin nox, noctis → noctambule, nocturne).






            share|improve this answer










            New contributor




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            • 2




              Maybe I am. But n+octo (8 in Latin) falls also pretty close to noctis.
              – bilbo_pingouin
              Nov 19 at 22:56








            • 2




              Welcome to Skeptics! Can you please give a more precise reference? What dictionary is that, and which edition?
              – Oddthinking
              Nov 19 at 23:55






            • 30




              I think I'm missing something. Doesn't this answer just explain that the French word for "night" is related to a Latin root that also refers to "night" (which is not surprising at all given that French is a language that developed from Latin)?
              – Schmuddi
              Nov 19 at 23:58






            • 7




              In the body of the question it says "Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French)." This doesn't provide anything that wasn't already mentioned in the question.
              – JMac
              Nov 20 at 12:03















            up vote
            -2
            down vote













            Roberts French dictionary says that nuit (night) comes from the Latin noctis meaning nocturnal (vient du latin nox, noctis → noctambule, nocturne).






            share|improve this answer










            New contributor




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            • 2




              Maybe I am. But n+octo (8 in Latin) falls also pretty close to noctis.
              – bilbo_pingouin
              Nov 19 at 22:56








            • 2




              Welcome to Skeptics! Can you please give a more precise reference? What dictionary is that, and which edition?
              – Oddthinking
              Nov 19 at 23:55






            • 30




              I think I'm missing something. Doesn't this answer just explain that the French word for "night" is related to a Latin root that also refers to "night" (which is not surprising at all given that French is a language that developed from Latin)?
              – Schmuddi
              Nov 19 at 23:58






            • 7




              In the body of the question it says "Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French)." This doesn't provide anything that wasn't already mentioned in the question.
              – JMac
              Nov 20 at 12:03













            up vote
            -2
            down vote










            up vote
            -2
            down vote









            Roberts French dictionary says that nuit (night) comes from the Latin noctis meaning nocturnal (vient du latin nox, noctis → noctambule, nocturne).






            share|improve this answer










            New contributor




            dubious f is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.









            Roberts French dictionary says that nuit (night) comes from the Latin noctis meaning nocturnal (vient du latin nox, noctis → noctambule, nocturne).







            share|improve this answer










            New contributor




            dubious f is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer








            edited Nov 19 at 23:53









            Oddthinking

            98.4k31409515




            98.4k31409515






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            answered Nov 19 at 22:52









            dubious f

            1




            1




            New contributor




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            New contributor





            dubious f is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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            dubious f is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.








            • 2




              Maybe I am. But n+octo (8 in Latin) falls also pretty close to noctis.
              – bilbo_pingouin
              Nov 19 at 22:56








            • 2




              Welcome to Skeptics! Can you please give a more precise reference? What dictionary is that, and which edition?
              – Oddthinking
              Nov 19 at 23:55






            • 30




              I think I'm missing something. Doesn't this answer just explain that the French word for "night" is related to a Latin root that also refers to "night" (which is not surprising at all given that French is a language that developed from Latin)?
              – Schmuddi
              Nov 19 at 23:58






            • 7




              In the body of the question it says "Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French)." This doesn't provide anything that wasn't already mentioned in the question.
              – JMac
              Nov 20 at 12:03














            • 2




              Maybe I am. But n+octo (8 in Latin) falls also pretty close to noctis.
              – bilbo_pingouin
              Nov 19 at 22:56








            • 2




              Welcome to Skeptics! Can you please give a more precise reference? What dictionary is that, and which edition?
              – Oddthinking
              Nov 19 at 23:55






            • 30




              I think I'm missing something. Doesn't this answer just explain that the French word for "night" is related to a Latin root that also refers to "night" (which is not surprising at all given that French is a language that developed from Latin)?
              – Schmuddi
              Nov 19 at 23:58






            • 7




              In the body of the question it says "Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French)." This doesn't provide anything that wasn't already mentioned in the question.
              – JMac
              Nov 20 at 12:03








            2




            2




            Maybe I am. But n+octo (8 in Latin) falls also pretty close to noctis.
            – bilbo_pingouin
            Nov 19 at 22:56






            Maybe I am. But n+octo (8 in Latin) falls also pretty close to noctis.
            – bilbo_pingouin
            Nov 19 at 22:56






            2




            2




            Welcome to Skeptics! Can you please give a more precise reference? What dictionary is that, and which edition?
            – Oddthinking
            Nov 19 at 23:55




            Welcome to Skeptics! Can you please give a more precise reference? What dictionary is that, and which edition?
            – Oddthinking
            Nov 19 at 23:55




            30




            30




            I think I'm missing something. Doesn't this answer just explain that the French word for "night" is related to a Latin root that also refers to "night" (which is not surprising at all given that French is a language that developed from Latin)?
            – Schmuddi
            Nov 19 at 23:58




            I think I'm missing something. Doesn't this answer just explain that the French word for "night" is related to a Latin root that also refers to "night" (which is not surprising at all given that French is a language that developed from Latin)?
            – Schmuddi
            Nov 19 at 23:58




            7




            7




            In the body of the question it says "Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French)." This doesn't provide anything that wasn't already mentioned in the question.
            – JMac
            Nov 20 at 12:03




            In the body of the question it says "Furthermore, the word nuit was used as noit in older French, and derives from noctum (latin) and thus nox (littré in French)." This doesn't provide anything that wasn't already mentioned in the question.
            – JMac
            Nov 20 at 12:03










            up vote
            -2
            down vote













            No, night and day come from old Norse.



            https://glosbe.com/en/non/night




            nátt { noun feminine }
            The period between sunset and sunrise, when a location faces far away from the sun, thus when the sky is dark.




            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/N%C3%B3tt




            In Norse mythology, Nótt (Old Norse "night"[1]) is night personified, grandmother of Thor.




            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dagr




            In Norse mythology, Dagr (Old Norse "day"[1]) is day personified.




            Old Norse blended with early Germanic languages, from which English is derived.






            share|improve this answer

















            • 9




              Your last sentence is either badly worded or just plainly wrong. First, Old Norse is not a particularly old language; Old English is at least 200 years older. Second, both languages are Germanic languages, but belong to different branches (West and North Germanic, respectively). Third, while Old Norse did have an influence on Old English when there were Scandinavian settlers in England during the 9th (and partly 10th) century, it's completely misleading to claim that English is derived in any way from Old Norse. In particular, night is of West Germanic origin, and not derived via Old Norse.
              – Schmuddi
              yesterday












            • OK You could say night is a loanword from old Norse, just like the days of the week and compass directions.
              – Chloe
              yesterday








            • 5




              No, it's just wrong to say that English borrowed night from Old Norse. In basically all West Germanic languages (such as English, Dutch and German) as well as North Germanic languages (such as Swedish or Danish) the word has descended from the same prehistoric Germanic root *nakht. The relation between the Old English word for night and the Old Norse one is as best as close as that between you and your niece.The same is also true for day and the words for compass directions. Really, please get your facts right – this can easily checked with any etymological dictionary.
              – Schmuddi
              yesterday












            • This answer is factually incorrect in pretty much every aspect. Night and day in English are completely separate from their Old Norse forms. They were not borrowed, nor inherited, nor in any other way influenced by the Old Norse forms; they developed quite independently within English. This is quite easily seen from the facts that (a) night retains its ⟨gh⟩ which was written as ⟨ch⟩ (and pronounced!) long after Old Norse, and (b) day was written with ⟨æ⟩ for centuries, a letter not used to represent ON /a/. Dagr borrowed into OE would probably have yielded *daw instead.
              – Janus Bahs Jacquet
              6 hours ago















            up vote
            -2
            down vote













            No, night and day come from old Norse.



            https://glosbe.com/en/non/night




            nátt { noun feminine }
            The period between sunset and sunrise, when a location faces far away from the sun, thus when the sky is dark.




            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/N%C3%B3tt




            In Norse mythology, Nótt (Old Norse "night"[1]) is night personified, grandmother of Thor.




            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dagr




            In Norse mythology, Dagr (Old Norse "day"[1]) is day personified.




            Old Norse blended with early Germanic languages, from which English is derived.






            share|improve this answer

















            • 9




              Your last sentence is either badly worded or just plainly wrong. First, Old Norse is not a particularly old language; Old English is at least 200 years older. Second, both languages are Germanic languages, but belong to different branches (West and North Germanic, respectively). Third, while Old Norse did have an influence on Old English when there were Scandinavian settlers in England during the 9th (and partly 10th) century, it's completely misleading to claim that English is derived in any way from Old Norse. In particular, night is of West Germanic origin, and not derived via Old Norse.
              – Schmuddi
              yesterday












            • OK You could say night is a loanword from old Norse, just like the days of the week and compass directions.
              – Chloe
              yesterday








            • 5




              No, it's just wrong to say that English borrowed night from Old Norse. In basically all West Germanic languages (such as English, Dutch and German) as well as North Germanic languages (such as Swedish or Danish) the word has descended from the same prehistoric Germanic root *nakht. The relation between the Old English word for night and the Old Norse one is as best as close as that between you and your niece.The same is also true for day and the words for compass directions. Really, please get your facts right – this can easily checked with any etymological dictionary.
              – Schmuddi
              yesterday












            • This answer is factually incorrect in pretty much every aspect. Night and day in English are completely separate from their Old Norse forms. They were not borrowed, nor inherited, nor in any other way influenced by the Old Norse forms; they developed quite independently within English. This is quite easily seen from the facts that (a) night retains its ⟨gh⟩ which was written as ⟨ch⟩ (and pronounced!) long after Old Norse, and (b) day was written with ⟨æ⟩ for centuries, a letter not used to represent ON /a/. Dagr borrowed into OE would probably have yielded *daw instead.
              – Janus Bahs Jacquet
              6 hours ago













            up vote
            -2
            down vote










            up vote
            -2
            down vote









            No, night and day come from old Norse.



            https://glosbe.com/en/non/night




            nátt { noun feminine }
            The period between sunset and sunrise, when a location faces far away from the sun, thus when the sky is dark.




            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/N%C3%B3tt




            In Norse mythology, Nótt (Old Norse "night"[1]) is night personified, grandmother of Thor.




            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dagr




            In Norse mythology, Dagr (Old Norse "day"[1]) is day personified.




            Old Norse blended with early Germanic languages, from which English is derived.






            share|improve this answer












            No, night and day come from old Norse.



            https://glosbe.com/en/non/night




            nátt { noun feminine }
            The period between sunset and sunrise, when a location faces far away from the sun, thus when the sky is dark.




            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/N%C3%B3tt




            In Norse mythology, Nótt (Old Norse "night"[1]) is night personified, grandmother of Thor.




            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dagr




            In Norse mythology, Dagr (Old Norse "day"[1]) is day personified.




            Old Norse blended with early Germanic languages, from which English is derived.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 2 days ago









            Chloe

            85111015




            85111015








            • 9




              Your last sentence is either badly worded or just plainly wrong. First, Old Norse is not a particularly old language; Old English is at least 200 years older. Second, both languages are Germanic languages, but belong to different branches (West and North Germanic, respectively). Third, while Old Norse did have an influence on Old English when there were Scandinavian settlers in England during the 9th (and partly 10th) century, it's completely misleading to claim that English is derived in any way from Old Norse. In particular, night is of West Germanic origin, and not derived via Old Norse.
              – Schmuddi
              yesterday












            • OK You could say night is a loanword from old Norse, just like the days of the week and compass directions.
              – Chloe
              yesterday








            • 5




              No, it's just wrong to say that English borrowed night from Old Norse. In basically all West Germanic languages (such as English, Dutch and German) as well as North Germanic languages (such as Swedish or Danish) the word has descended from the same prehistoric Germanic root *nakht. The relation between the Old English word for night and the Old Norse one is as best as close as that between you and your niece.The same is also true for day and the words for compass directions. Really, please get your facts right – this can easily checked with any etymological dictionary.
              – Schmuddi
              yesterday












            • This answer is factually incorrect in pretty much every aspect. Night and day in English are completely separate from their Old Norse forms. They were not borrowed, nor inherited, nor in any other way influenced by the Old Norse forms; they developed quite independently within English. This is quite easily seen from the facts that (a) night retains its ⟨gh⟩ which was written as ⟨ch⟩ (and pronounced!) long after Old Norse, and (b) day was written with ⟨æ⟩ for centuries, a letter not used to represent ON /a/. Dagr borrowed into OE would probably have yielded *daw instead.
              – Janus Bahs Jacquet
              6 hours ago














            • 9




              Your last sentence is either badly worded or just plainly wrong. First, Old Norse is not a particularly old language; Old English is at least 200 years older. Second, both languages are Germanic languages, but belong to different branches (West and North Germanic, respectively). Third, while Old Norse did have an influence on Old English when there were Scandinavian settlers in England during the 9th (and partly 10th) century, it's completely misleading to claim that English is derived in any way from Old Norse. In particular, night is of West Germanic origin, and not derived via Old Norse.
              – Schmuddi
              yesterday












            • OK You could say night is a loanword from old Norse, just like the days of the week and compass directions.
              – Chloe
              yesterday








            • 5




              No, it's just wrong to say that English borrowed night from Old Norse. In basically all West Germanic languages (such as English, Dutch and German) as well as North Germanic languages (such as Swedish or Danish) the word has descended from the same prehistoric Germanic root *nakht. The relation between the Old English word for night and the Old Norse one is as best as close as that between you and your niece.The same is also true for day and the words for compass directions. Really, please get your facts right – this can easily checked with any etymological dictionary.
              – Schmuddi
              yesterday












            • This answer is factually incorrect in pretty much every aspect. Night and day in English are completely separate from their Old Norse forms. They were not borrowed, nor inherited, nor in any other way influenced by the Old Norse forms; they developed quite independently within English. This is quite easily seen from the facts that (a) night retains its ⟨gh⟩ which was written as ⟨ch⟩ (and pronounced!) long after Old Norse, and (b) day was written with ⟨æ⟩ for centuries, a letter not used to represent ON /a/. Dagr borrowed into OE would probably have yielded *daw instead.
              – Janus Bahs Jacquet
              6 hours ago








            9




            9




            Your last sentence is either badly worded or just plainly wrong. First, Old Norse is not a particularly old language; Old English is at least 200 years older. Second, both languages are Germanic languages, but belong to different branches (West and North Germanic, respectively). Third, while Old Norse did have an influence on Old English when there were Scandinavian settlers in England during the 9th (and partly 10th) century, it's completely misleading to claim that English is derived in any way from Old Norse. In particular, night is of West Germanic origin, and not derived via Old Norse.
            – Schmuddi
            yesterday






            Your last sentence is either badly worded or just plainly wrong. First, Old Norse is not a particularly old language; Old English is at least 200 years older. Second, both languages are Germanic languages, but belong to different branches (West and North Germanic, respectively). Third, while Old Norse did have an influence on Old English when there were Scandinavian settlers in England during the 9th (and partly 10th) century, it's completely misleading to claim that English is derived in any way from Old Norse. In particular, night is of West Germanic origin, and not derived via Old Norse.
            – Schmuddi
            yesterday














            OK You could say night is a loanword from old Norse, just like the days of the week and compass directions.
            – Chloe
            yesterday






            OK You could say night is a loanword from old Norse, just like the days of the week and compass directions.
            – Chloe
            yesterday






            5




            5




            No, it's just wrong to say that English borrowed night from Old Norse. In basically all West Germanic languages (such as English, Dutch and German) as well as North Germanic languages (such as Swedish or Danish) the word has descended from the same prehistoric Germanic root *nakht. The relation between the Old English word for night and the Old Norse one is as best as close as that between you and your niece.The same is also true for day and the words for compass directions. Really, please get your facts right – this can easily checked with any etymological dictionary.
            – Schmuddi
            yesterday






            No, it's just wrong to say that English borrowed night from Old Norse. In basically all West Germanic languages (such as English, Dutch and German) as well as North Germanic languages (such as Swedish or Danish) the word has descended from the same prehistoric Germanic root *nakht. The relation between the Old English word for night and the Old Norse one is as best as close as that between you and your niece.The same is also true for day and the words for compass directions. Really, please get your facts right – this can easily checked with any etymological dictionary.
            – Schmuddi
            yesterday














            This answer is factually incorrect in pretty much every aspect. Night and day in English are completely separate from their Old Norse forms. They were not borrowed, nor inherited, nor in any other way influenced by the Old Norse forms; they developed quite independently within English. This is quite easily seen from the facts that (a) night retains its ⟨gh⟩ which was written as ⟨ch⟩ (and pronounced!) long after Old Norse, and (b) day was written with ⟨æ⟩ for centuries, a letter not used to represent ON /a/. Dagr borrowed into OE would probably have yielded *daw instead.
            – Janus Bahs Jacquet
            6 hours ago




            This answer is factually incorrect in pretty much every aspect. Night and day in English are completely separate from their Old Norse forms. They were not borrowed, nor inherited, nor in any other way influenced by the Old Norse forms; they developed quite independently within English. This is quite easily seen from the facts that (a) night retains its ⟨gh⟩ which was written as ⟨ch⟩ (and pronounced!) long after Old Norse, and (b) day was written with ⟨æ⟩ for centuries, a letter not used to represent ON /a/. Dagr borrowed into OE would probably have yielded *daw instead.
            – Janus Bahs Jacquet
            6 hours ago



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