Are most cases of polio derived from the polio vaccine?











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According to this National Public Radio article:




For the first time, the number of children paralyzed by mutant strains of the polio vaccine are greater than the number of children paralyzed by polio itself.



So far in 2017, there have been only six cases of "wild" polio reported anywhere in the world. By "wild," public health officials mean the disease caused by polio virus found naturally in the environment. By contrast, there have been 21 cases of vaccine-derived polio this year.




Are the claims in this article accurate?










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    up vote
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    According to this National Public Radio article:




    For the first time, the number of children paralyzed by mutant strains of the polio vaccine are greater than the number of children paralyzed by polio itself.



    So far in 2017, there have been only six cases of "wild" polio reported anywhere in the world. By "wild," public health officials mean the disease caused by polio virus found naturally in the environment. By contrast, there have been 21 cases of vaccine-derived polio this year.




    Are the claims in this article accurate?










    share|improve this question


























      up vote
      52
      down vote

      favorite
      5









      up vote
      52
      down vote

      favorite
      5






      5





      According to this National Public Radio article:




      For the first time, the number of children paralyzed by mutant strains of the polio vaccine are greater than the number of children paralyzed by polio itself.



      So far in 2017, there have been only six cases of "wild" polio reported anywhere in the world. By "wild," public health officials mean the disease caused by polio virus found naturally in the environment. By contrast, there have been 21 cases of vaccine-derived polio this year.




      Are the claims in this article accurate?










      share|improve this question















      According to this National Public Radio article:




      For the first time, the number of children paralyzed by mutant strains of the polio vaccine are greater than the number of children paralyzed by polio itself.



      So far in 2017, there have been only six cases of "wild" polio reported anywhere in the world. By "wild," public health officials mean the disease caused by polio virus found naturally in the environment. By contrast, there have been 21 cases of vaccine-derived polio this year.




      Are the claims in this article accurate?







      medical-science vaccines






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      edited Nov 19 at 14:00









      DJClayworth

      39.7k16155161




      39.7k16155161










      asked Nov 16 at 15:51









      Roger

      1,126316




      1,126316






















          1 Answer
          1






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          up vote
          91
          down vote



          accepted










          Numbers not exact, ratio plausible. This is a success story.



          The WHO provides a queryable database on AFP / polio. I am a bit unclear on the exact meaning of the headers, so I'll list the 2017 global totals for all columns:




          • AFP (acute flaccid paralysis) cases: 104090

          • Non polio AFP Rate: 5.46

          • % Adequate stool collection: 89

          • Pending: 118

          • Wild poliovirus cases: 22

          • cVDPV cases: 96

          • Compatibles: 259


          cVDPV stands for circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus.



          So 96 cVDPV cases to 22 wild cases with 118 "pending" at least makes the claim's 21 to 6 cases plausible (assuming "at the point of writing").





          This graph visualizes the progress of polio eradication:



          enter image description here



          (Tobus, Own work, CC BY-SA 4.0)





          Note that cVDPV does not mean that the vaccinated person becomes ill. It means that viruses shedded by a freshly vaccinated person start infecting other, unvaccinated people. A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio.



          Quoted from the WHO page, emphasis mine:




          It takes a long time for a cVDPV to occur. Generally, the strain will have been allowed to circulate in an un- or under-immunized population for a period of at least 12 months. Circulating VDPVs occur when routine or supplementary immunization activities (SIAs) are poorly conducted and a population is left susceptible to poliovirus, whether from vaccine-derived or wild poliovirus. Hence, the problem is not with the vaccine itself, but low vaccination coverage. If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses.



          Since 2000, more than 10 billion doses of OPV have been administered to nearly 3 billion children worldwide. As a result, more than 13 million cases of polio have been prevented, and the disease has been reduced by more than 99%. During that time, 24 cVDPV outbreaks occurred in 21 countries, resulting in fewer than 760 VDPV cases.




          Actually they felt they could remove the most problematic strain of the virus from the vaccination:




          Until 2015, over 90% of cVDPV cases were due to the type 2 component in OPV. With the transmission of wild poliovirus type 2 already successfully interrupted since 1999, in April 2016 a switch was implemented from trivalent OPV to bivalent OPV in routine immunization programmes. The removal of the type 2 component of OPV is associated with significant public health benefits, including a reduction of the risk of cases of cVDPV2.




          So allowing for the latency mentioned for cVDPV to actually occur, vaccine-derived polio cases can be expected to go down as well.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 7




            There's maybe a mismatch here where the quote in the question says 'paralysed by polio' but the data is more 'caught polio', which presumably doesn't have a 100% rate of paralysing people. I would perhaps hope that the live vaccine is with a strain that is unlikely to cause paralysis, so that rate would be lower even if it caused more infections, but I don't know anywhere enough about polio to know if that's possible.
            – mbrig
            Nov 16 at 23:21






          • 13




            @mbrig [Paralysis] occurs in less than 1% of all infections, so nope, not even close to 100%.
            – Nic Hartley
            Nov 16 at 23:36








          • 4




            @NicHartley - However, since the same article states that 90 to 95% of all polio infections are asymptomatic, and presumably not detected in the populations being discussed, a 1% paralysis rate of overall infections implies a 10 to 20% paralysis rate in diagnosed cases.
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Nov 17 at 15:52






          • 4




            @NicHartley - Sure, the tests exist. But for the population currently under discussion (3rd world) it seems most unlikely that anything other than symptomatic infections will be reported.
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Nov 17 at 22:17






          • 3




            Your statement: "A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio." is slightly stronger than the source "If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses." If vaccination is not 100% effective, the population won't be "immune", but it will be protected by herd immunity, making outbreaks much less likely.
            – Oddthinking
            Nov 19 at 13:54





















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          91
          down vote



          accepted










          Numbers not exact, ratio plausible. This is a success story.



          The WHO provides a queryable database on AFP / polio. I am a bit unclear on the exact meaning of the headers, so I'll list the 2017 global totals for all columns:




          • AFP (acute flaccid paralysis) cases: 104090

          • Non polio AFP Rate: 5.46

          • % Adequate stool collection: 89

          • Pending: 118

          • Wild poliovirus cases: 22

          • cVDPV cases: 96

          • Compatibles: 259


          cVDPV stands for circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus.



          So 96 cVDPV cases to 22 wild cases with 118 "pending" at least makes the claim's 21 to 6 cases plausible (assuming "at the point of writing").





          This graph visualizes the progress of polio eradication:



          enter image description here



          (Tobus, Own work, CC BY-SA 4.0)





          Note that cVDPV does not mean that the vaccinated person becomes ill. It means that viruses shedded by a freshly vaccinated person start infecting other, unvaccinated people. A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio.



          Quoted from the WHO page, emphasis mine:




          It takes a long time for a cVDPV to occur. Generally, the strain will have been allowed to circulate in an un- or under-immunized population for a period of at least 12 months. Circulating VDPVs occur when routine or supplementary immunization activities (SIAs) are poorly conducted and a population is left susceptible to poliovirus, whether from vaccine-derived or wild poliovirus. Hence, the problem is not with the vaccine itself, but low vaccination coverage. If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses.



          Since 2000, more than 10 billion doses of OPV have been administered to nearly 3 billion children worldwide. As a result, more than 13 million cases of polio have been prevented, and the disease has been reduced by more than 99%. During that time, 24 cVDPV outbreaks occurred in 21 countries, resulting in fewer than 760 VDPV cases.




          Actually they felt they could remove the most problematic strain of the virus from the vaccination:




          Until 2015, over 90% of cVDPV cases were due to the type 2 component in OPV. With the transmission of wild poliovirus type 2 already successfully interrupted since 1999, in April 2016 a switch was implemented from trivalent OPV to bivalent OPV in routine immunization programmes. The removal of the type 2 component of OPV is associated with significant public health benefits, including a reduction of the risk of cases of cVDPV2.




          So allowing for the latency mentioned for cVDPV to actually occur, vaccine-derived polio cases can be expected to go down as well.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 7




            There's maybe a mismatch here where the quote in the question says 'paralysed by polio' but the data is more 'caught polio', which presumably doesn't have a 100% rate of paralysing people. I would perhaps hope that the live vaccine is with a strain that is unlikely to cause paralysis, so that rate would be lower even if it caused more infections, but I don't know anywhere enough about polio to know if that's possible.
            – mbrig
            Nov 16 at 23:21






          • 13




            @mbrig [Paralysis] occurs in less than 1% of all infections, so nope, not even close to 100%.
            – Nic Hartley
            Nov 16 at 23:36








          • 4




            @NicHartley - However, since the same article states that 90 to 95% of all polio infections are asymptomatic, and presumably not detected in the populations being discussed, a 1% paralysis rate of overall infections implies a 10 to 20% paralysis rate in diagnosed cases.
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Nov 17 at 15:52






          • 4




            @NicHartley - Sure, the tests exist. But for the population currently under discussion (3rd world) it seems most unlikely that anything other than symptomatic infections will be reported.
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Nov 17 at 22:17






          • 3




            Your statement: "A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio." is slightly stronger than the source "If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses." If vaccination is not 100% effective, the population won't be "immune", but it will be protected by herd immunity, making outbreaks much less likely.
            – Oddthinking
            Nov 19 at 13:54

















          up vote
          91
          down vote



          accepted










          Numbers not exact, ratio plausible. This is a success story.



          The WHO provides a queryable database on AFP / polio. I am a bit unclear on the exact meaning of the headers, so I'll list the 2017 global totals for all columns:




          • AFP (acute flaccid paralysis) cases: 104090

          • Non polio AFP Rate: 5.46

          • % Adequate stool collection: 89

          • Pending: 118

          • Wild poliovirus cases: 22

          • cVDPV cases: 96

          • Compatibles: 259


          cVDPV stands for circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus.



          So 96 cVDPV cases to 22 wild cases with 118 "pending" at least makes the claim's 21 to 6 cases plausible (assuming "at the point of writing").





          This graph visualizes the progress of polio eradication:



          enter image description here



          (Tobus, Own work, CC BY-SA 4.0)





          Note that cVDPV does not mean that the vaccinated person becomes ill. It means that viruses shedded by a freshly vaccinated person start infecting other, unvaccinated people. A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio.



          Quoted from the WHO page, emphasis mine:




          It takes a long time for a cVDPV to occur. Generally, the strain will have been allowed to circulate in an un- or under-immunized population for a period of at least 12 months. Circulating VDPVs occur when routine or supplementary immunization activities (SIAs) are poorly conducted and a population is left susceptible to poliovirus, whether from vaccine-derived or wild poliovirus. Hence, the problem is not with the vaccine itself, but low vaccination coverage. If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses.



          Since 2000, more than 10 billion doses of OPV have been administered to nearly 3 billion children worldwide. As a result, more than 13 million cases of polio have been prevented, and the disease has been reduced by more than 99%. During that time, 24 cVDPV outbreaks occurred in 21 countries, resulting in fewer than 760 VDPV cases.




          Actually they felt they could remove the most problematic strain of the virus from the vaccination:




          Until 2015, over 90% of cVDPV cases were due to the type 2 component in OPV. With the transmission of wild poliovirus type 2 already successfully interrupted since 1999, in April 2016 a switch was implemented from trivalent OPV to bivalent OPV in routine immunization programmes. The removal of the type 2 component of OPV is associated with significant public health benefits, including a reduction of the risk of cases of cVDPV2.




          So allowing for the latency mentioned for cVDPV to actually occur, vaccine-derived polio cases can be expected to go down as well.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 7




            There's maybe a mismatch here where the quote in the question says 'paralysed by polio' but the data is more 'caught polio', which presumably doesn't have a 100% rate of paralysing people. I would perhaps hope that the live vaccine is with a strain that is unlikely to cause paralysis, so that rate would be lower even if it caused more infections, but I don't know anywhere enough about polio to know if that's possible.
            – mbrig
            Nov 16 at 23:21






          • 13




            @mbrig [Paralysis] occurs in less than 1% of all infections, so nope, not even close to 100%.
            – Nic Hartley
            Nov 16 at 23:36








          • 4




            @NicHartley - However, since the same article states that 90 to 95% of all polio infections are asymptomatic, and presumably not detected in the populations being discussed, a 1% paralysis rate of overall infections implies a 10 to 20% paralysis rate in diagnosed cases.
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Nov 17 at 15:52






          • 4




            @NicHartley - Sure, the tests exist. But for the population currently under discussion (3rd world) it seems most unlikely that anything other than symptomatic infections will be reported.
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Nov 17 at 22:17






          • 3




            Your statement: "A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio." is slightly stronger than the source "If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses." If vaccination is not 100% effective, the population won't be "immune", but it will be protected by herd immunity, making outbreaks much less likely.
            – Oddthinking
            Nov 19 at 13:54















          up vote
          91
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          91
          down vote



          accepted






          Numbers not exact, ratio plausible. This is a success story.



          The WHO provides a queryable database on AFP / polio. I am a bit unclear on the exact meaning of the headers, so I'll list the 2017 global totals for all columns:




          • AFP (acute flaccid paralysis) cases: 104090

          • Non polio AFP Rate: 5.46

          • % Adequate stool collection: 89

          • Pending: 118

          • Wild poliovirus cases: 22

          • cVDPV cases: 96

          • Compatibles: 259


          cVDPV stands for circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus.



          So 96 cVDPV cases to 22 wild cases with 118 "pending" at least makes the claim's 21 to 6 cases plausible (assuming "at the point of writing").





          This graph visualizes the progress of polio eradication:



          enter image description here



          (Tobus, Own work, CC BY-SA 4.0)





          Note that cVDPV does not mean that the vaccinated person becomes ill. It means that viruses shedded by a freshly vaccinated person start infecting other, unvaccinated people. A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio.



          Quoted from the WHO page, emphasis mine:




          It takes a long time for a cVDPV to occur. Generally, the strain will have been allowed to circulate in an un- or under-immunized population for a period of at least 12 months. Circulating VDPVs occur when routine or supplementary immunization activities (SIAs) are poorly conducted and a population is left susceptible to poliovirus, whether from vaccine-derived or wild poliovirus. Hence, the problem is not with the vaccine itself, but low vaccination coverage. If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses.



          Since 2000, more than 10 billion doses of OPV have been administered to nearly 3 billion children worldwide. As a result, more than 13 million cases of polio have been prevented, and the disease has been reduced by more than 99%. During that time, 24 cVDPV outbreaks occurred in 21 countries, resulting in fewer than 760 VDPV cases.




          Actually they felt they could remove the most problematic strain of the virus from the vaccination:




          Until 2015, over 90% of cVDPV cases were due to the type 2 component in OPV. With the transmission of wild poliovirus type 2 already successfully interrupted since 1999, in April 2016 a switch was implemented from trivalent OPV to bivalent OPV in routine immunization programmes. The removal of the type 2 component of OPV is associated with significant public health benefits, including a reduction of the risk of cases of cVDPV2.




          So allowing for the latency mentioned for cVDPV to actually occur, vaccine-derived polio cases can be expected to go down as well.






          share|improve this answer














          Numbers not exact, ratio plausible. This is a success story.



          The WHO provides a queryable database on AFP / polio. I am a bit unclear on the exact meaning of the headers, so I'll list the 2017 global totals for all columns:




          • AFP (acute flaccid paralysis) cases: 104090

          • Non polio AFP Rate: 5.46

          • % Adequate stool collection: 89

          • Pending: 118

          • Wild poliovirus cases: 22

          • cVDPV cases: 96

          • Compatibles: 259


          cVDPV stands for circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus.



          So 96 cVDPV cases to 22 wild cases with 118 "pending" at least makes the claim's 21 to 6 cases plausible (assuming "at the point of writing").





          This graph visualizes the progress of polio eradication:



          enter image description here



          (Tobus, Own work, CC BY-SA 4.0)





          Note that cVDPV does not mean that the vaccinated person becomes ill. It means that viruses shedded by a freshly vaccinated person start infecting other, unvaccinated people. A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio.



          Quoted from the WHO page, emphasis mine:




          It takes a long time for a cVDPV to occur. Generally, the strain will have been allowed to circulate in an un- or under-immunized population for a period of at least 12 months. Circulating VDPVs occur when routine or supplementary immunization activities (SIAs) are poorly conducted and a population is left susceptible to poliovirus, whether from vaccine-derived or wild poliovirus. Hence, the problem is not with the vaccine itself, but low vaccination coverage. If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses.



          Since 2000, more than 10 billion doses of OPV have been administered to nearly 3 billion children worldwide. As a result, more than 13 million cases of polio have been prevented, and the disease has been reduced by more than 99%. During that time, 24 cVDPV outbreaks occurred in 21 countries, resulting in fewer than 760 VDPV cases.




          Actually they felt they could remove the most problematic strain of the virus from the vaccination:




          Until 2015, over 90% of cVDPV cases were due to the type 2 component in OPV. With the transmission of wild poliovirus type 2 already successfully interrupted since 1999, in April 2016 a switch was implemented from trivalent OPV to bivalent OPV in routine immunization programmes. The removal of the type 2 component of OPV is associated with significant public health benefits, including a reduction of the risk of cases of cVDPV2.




          So allowing for the latency mentioned for cVDPV to actually occur, vaccine-derived polio cases can be expected to go down as well.







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Nov 19 at 13:18









          Ilmari Karonen

          266210




          266210










          answered Nov 16 at 16:15









          DevSolar

          9,06933741




          9,06933741








          • 7




            There's maybe a mismatch here where the quote in the question says 'paralysed by polio' but the data is more 'caught polio', which presumably doesn't have a 100% rate of paralysing people. I would perhaps hope that the live vaccine is with a strain that is unlikely to cause paralysis, so that rate would be lower even if it caused more infections, but I don't know anywhere enough about polio to know if that's possible.
            – mbrig
            Nov 16 at 23:21






          • 13




            @mbrig [Paralysis] occurs in less than 1% of all infections, so nope, not even close to 100%.
            – Nic Hartley
            Nov 16 at 23:36








          • 4




            @NicHartley - However, since the same article states that 90 to 95% of all polio infections are asymptomatic, and presumably not detected in the populations being discussed, a 1% paralysis rate of overall infections implies a 10 to 20% paralysis rate in diagnosed cases.
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Nov 17 at 15:52






          • 4




            @NicHartley - Sure, the tests exist. But for the population currently under discussion (3rd world) it seems most unlikely that anything other than symptomatic infections will be reported.
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Nov 17 at 22:17






          • 3




            Your statement: "A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio." is slightly stronger than the source "If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses." If vaccination is not 100% effective, the population won't be "immune", but it will be protected by herd immunity, making outbreaks much less likely.
            – Oddthinking
            Nov 19 at 13:54
















          • 7




            There's maybe a mismatch here where the quote in the question says 'paralysed by polio' but the data is more 'caught polio', which presumably doesn't have a 100% rate of paralysing people. I would perhaps hope that the live vaccine is with a strain that is unlikely to cause paralysis, so that rate would be lower even if it caused more infections, but I don't know anywhere enough about polio to know if that's possible.
            – mbrig
            Nov 16 at 23:21






          • 13




            @mbrig [Paralysis] occurs in less than 1% of all infections, so nope, not even close to 100%.
            – Nic Hartley
            Nov 16 at 23:36








          • 4




            @NicHartley - However, since the same article states that 90 to 95% of all polio infections are asymptomatic, and presumably not detected in the populations being discussed, a 1% paralysis rate of overall infections implies a 10 to 20% paralysis rate in diagnosed cases.
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Nov 17 at 15:52






          • 4




            @NicHartley - Sure, the tests exist. But for the population currently under discussion (3rd world) it seems most unlikely that anything other than symptomatic infections will be reported.
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Nov 17 at 22:17






          • 3




            Your statement: "A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio." is slightly stronger than the source "If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses." If vaccination is not 100% effective, the population won't be "immune", but it will be protected by herd immunity, making outbreaks much less likely.
            – Oddthinking
            Nov 19 at 13:54










          7




          7




          There's maybe a mismatch here where the quote in the question says 'paralysed by polio' but the data is more 'caught polio', which presumably doesn't have a 100% rate of paralysing people. I would perhaps hope that the live vaccine is with a strain that is unlikely to cause paralysis, so that rate would be lower even if it caused more infections, but I don't know anywhere enough about polio to know if that's possible.
          – mbrig
          Nov 16 at 23:21




          There's maybe a mismatch here where the quote in the question says 'paralysed by polio' but the data is more 'caught polio', which presumably doesn't have a 100% rate of paralysing people. I would perhaps hope that the live vaccine is with a strain that is unlikely to cause paralysis, so that rate would be lower even if it caused more infections, but I don't know anywhere enough about polio to know if that's possible.
          – mbrig
          Nov 16 at 23:21




          13




          13




          @mbrig [Paralysis] occurs in less than 1% of all infections, so nope, not even close to 100%.
          – Nic Hartley
          Nov 16 at 23:36






          @mbrig [Paralysis] occurs in less than 1% of all infections, so nope, not even close to 100%.
          – Nic Hartley
          Nov 16 at 23:36






          4




          4




          @NicHartley - However, since the same article states that 90 to 95% of all polio infections are asymptomatic, and presumably not detected in the populations being discussed, a 1% paralysis rate of overall infections implies a 10 to 20% paralysis rate in diagnosed cases.
          – WhatRoughBeast
          Nov 17 at 15:52




          @NicHartley - However, since the same article states that 90 to 95% of all polio infections are asymptomatic, and presumably not detected in the populations being discussed, a 1% paralysis rate of overall infections implies a 10 to 20% paralysis rate in diagnosed cases.
          – WhatRoughBeast
          Nov 17 at 15:52




          4




          4




          @NicHartley - Sure, the tests exist. But for the population currently under discussion (3rd world) it seems most unlikely that anything other than symptomatic infections will be reported.
          – WhatRoughBeast
          Nov 17 at 22:17




          @NicHartley - Sure, the tests exist. But for the population currently under discussion (3rd world) it seems most unlikely that anything other than symptomatic infections will be reported.
          – WhatRoughBeast
          Nov 17 at 22:17




          3




          3




          Your statement: "A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio." is slightly stronger than the source "If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses." If vaccination is not 100% effective, the population won't be "immune", but it will be protected by herd immunity, making outbreaks much less likely.
          – Oddthinking
          Nov 19 at 13:54






          Your statement: "A fully vaccinated population would be immune from both types of polio." is slightly stronger than the source "If a population is fully immunized, they will be protected against both vaccine-derived and wild polioviruses." If vaccination is not 100% effective, the population won't be "immune", but it will be protected by herd immunity, making outbreaks much less likely.
          – Oddthinking
          Nov 19 at 13:54





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