Given Two-dimensional Gaussian distribution, how to derive the pdf of Z?











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Let $(X,Y) sim N left(
begin{pmatrix}0\0
end{pmatrix},
begin{pmatrix} 1& 0 \
0 & 1
end{pmatrix}
right)$
and $Z = X I {XY >0} - X I {XY <0} $



Find the distribution of Z.



From the question, I only know that X,Y are independent and X~N(0,1), Y~N(0,1). I think we should derive the cdf of Z for z>0 and z<0 first in order to get the pdf of Z. However, I don't know how to, since Z=X for XY>0 and Z=-X for XY<0, which is really complicate. Somebody help me please!










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  • Hi Araceli, welcome to MSE. I wrote down the problem statement in Latex (as you should here), please check that it's ok.
    – leonbloy
    Nov 16 at 21:50

















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $(X,Y) sim N left(
begin{pmatrix}0\0
end{pmatrix},
begin{pmatrix} 1& 0 \
0 & 1
end{pmatrix}
right)$
and $Z = X I {XY >0} - X I {XY <0} $



Find the distribution of Z.



From the question, I only know that X,Y are independent and X~N(0,1), Y~N(0,1). I think we should derive the cdf of Z for z>0 and z<0 first in order to get the pdf of Z. However, I don't know how to, since Z=X for XY>0 and Z=-X for XY<0, which is really complicate. Somebody help me please!










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Hi Araceli, welcome to MSE. I wrote down the problem statement in Latex (as you should here), please check that it's ok.
    – leonbloy
    Nov 16 at 21:50















up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Let $(X,Y) sim N left(
begin{pmatrix}0\0
end{pmatrix},
begin{pmatrix} 1& 0 \
0 & 1
end{pmatrix}
right)$
and $Z = X I {XY >0} - X I {XY <0} $



Find the distribution of Z.



From the question, I only know that X,Y are independent and X~N(0,1), Y~N(0,1). I think we should derive the cdf of Z for z>0 and z<0 first in order to get the pdf of Z. However, I don't know how to, since Z=X for XY>0 and Z=-X for XY<0, which is really complicate. Somebody help me please!










share|cite|improve this question















Let $(X,Y) sim N left(
begin{pmatrix}0\0
end{pmatrix},
begin{pmatrix} 1& 0 \
0 & 1
end{pmatrix}
right)$
and $Z = X I {XY >0} - X I {XY <0} $



Find the distribution of Z.



From the question, I only know that X,Y are independent and X~N(0,1), Y~N(0,1). I think we should derive the cdf of Z for z>0 and z<0 first in order to get the pdf of Z. However, I don't know how to, since Z=X for XY>0 and Z=-X for XY<0, which is really complicate. Somebody help me please!







probability statistics






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 16 at 21:49









leonbloy

39.7k645106




39.7k645106










asked Nov 16 at 21:42









Araceli

61




61












  • Hi Araceli, welcome to MSE. I wrote down the problem statement in Latex (as you should here), please check that it's ok.
    – leonbloy
    Nov 16 at 21:50




















  • Hi Araceli, welcome to MSE. I wrote down the problem statement in Latex (as you should here), please check that it's ok.
    – leonbloy
    Nov 16 at 21:50


















Hi Araceli, welcome to MSE. I wrote down the problem statement in Latex (as you should here), please check that it's ok.
– leonbloy
Nov 16 at 21:50






Hi Araceli, welcome to MSE. I wrote down the problem statement in Latex (as you should here), please check that it's ok.
– leonbloy
Nov 16 at 21:50












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
0
down vote



accepted










There are several ways...



For example : Let $W=I{X Y ge 0 }$. Notice (show) that $P(W=0) = P(W=1)=frac12$ and (important, and not so trivial) $W$ is independent of $X$.



$$begin{align}P(Zle z) &= P(Z le z cap W=0) + P(Z le z cap W=1) \
&= P(Z le z mid W=0) P(W=0) + P(Z le z mid W=1)P(W=1)\
&= P(X le z mid W=0) frac12 + P(-X le z mid W=1)frac12\
&= P(X le z ) frac12 + P(X ge -z )frac12\
&= frac12 ( F_X(z ) + (1- F_X(-z))\
&= F_X(z )
end{align}$$



That $W$ is independent of $X$ is intuitive by symmetry. A little more formally:
$$P(W=1 | X=x) =begin{cases}
P(Yge 0)=frac12 & {rm if hskip 3mm} x ge 0\
P(Y<0)=frac12 & {rm if hskip 3mm} x < 0\
end{cases}$$

Hence $P(W | X) = P(W)$ , and $W,X$ are independent.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thanks for answering! That's very helpful. However, I'm still a little bit confused about whether W and X are independent. My thought is that whether xy are positive or negative has nothing to do with the distribution of f(x). Do you have a better explanation?
    – Araceli
    Nov 16 at 23:54










  • @Araceli I added a possible explanation
    – leonbloy
    Nov 17 at 2:44











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
0
down vote



accepted










There are several ways...



For example : Let $W=I{X Y ge 0 }$. Notice (show) that $P(W=0) = P(W=1)=frac12$ and (important, and not so trivial) $W$ is independent of $X$.



$$begin{align}P(Zle z) &= P(Z le z cap W=0) + P(Z le z cap W=1) \
&= P(Z le z mid W=0) P(W=0) + P(Z le z mid W=1)P(W=1)\
&= P(X le z mid W=0) frac12 + P(-X le z mid W=1)frac12\
&= P(X le z ) frac12 + P(X ge -z )frac12\
&= frac12 ( F_X(z ) + (1- F_X(-z))\
&= F_X(z )
end{align}$$



That $W$ is independent of $X$ is intuitive by symmetry. A little more formally:
$$P(W=1 | X=x) =begin{cases}
P(Yge 0)=frac12 & {rm if hskip 3mm} x ge 0\
P(Y<0)=frac12 & {rm if hskip 3mm} x < 0\
end{cases}$$

Hence $P(W | X) = P(W)$ , and $W,X$ are independent.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thanks for answering! That's very helpful. However, I'm still a little bit confused about whether W and X are independent. My thought is that whether xy are positive or negative has nothing to do with the distribution of f(x). Do you have a better explanation?
    – Araceli
    Nov 16 at 23:54










  • @Araceli I added a possible explanation
    – leonbloy
    Nov 17 at 2:44















up vote
0
down vote



accepted










There are several ways...



For example : Let $W=I{X Y ge 0 }$. Notice (show) that $P(W=0) = P(W=1)=frac12$ and (important, and not so trivial) $W$ is independent of $X$.



$$begin{align}P(Zle z) &= P(Z le z cap W=0) + P(Z le z cap W=1) \
&= P(Z le z mid W=0) P(W=0) + P(Z le z mid W=1)P(W=1)\
&= P(X le z mid W=0) frac12 + P(-X le z mid W=1)frac12\
&= P(X le z ) frac12 + P(X ge -z )frac12\
&= frac12 ( F_X(z ) + (1- F_X(-z))\
&= F_X(z )
end{align}$$



That $W$ is independent of $X$ is intuitive by symmetry. A little more formally:
$$P(W=1 | X=x) =begin{cases}
P(Yge 0)=frac12 & {rm if hskip 3mm} x ge 0\
P(Y<0)=frac12 & {rm if hskip 3mm} x < 0\
end{cases}$$

Hence $P(W | X) = P(W)$ , and $W,X$ are independent.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thanks for answering! That's very helpful. However, I'm still a little bit confused about whether W and X are independent. My thought is that whether xy are positive or negative has nothing to do with the distribution of f(x). Do you have a better explanation?
    – Araceli
    Nov 16 at 23:54










  • @Araceli I added a possible explanation
    – leonbloy
    Nov 17 at 2:44













up vote
0
down vote



accepted







up vote
0
down vote



accepted






There are several ways...



For example : Let $W=I{X Y ge 0 }$. Notice (show) that $P(W=0) = P(W=1)=frac12$ and (important, and not so trivial) $W$ is independent of $X$.



$$begin{align}P(Zle z) &= P(Z le z cap W=0) + P(Z le z cap W=1) \
&= P(Z le z mid W=0) P(W=0) + P(Z le z mid W=1)P(W=1)\
&= P(X le z mid W=0) frac12 + P(-X le z mid W=1)frac12\
&= P(X le z ) frac12 + P(X ge -z )frac12\
&= frac12 ( F_X(z ) + (1- F_X(-z))\
&= F_X(z )
end{align}$$



That $W$ is independent of $X$ is intuitive by symmetry. A little more formally:
$$P(W=1 | X=x) =begin{cases}
P(Yge 0)=frac12 & {rm if hskip 3mm} x ge 0\
P(Y<0)=frac12 & {rm if hskip 3mm} x < 0\
end{cases}$$

Hence $P(W | X) = P(W)$ , and $W,X$ are independent.






share|cite|improve this answer














There are several ways...



For example : Let $W=I{X Y ge 0 }$. Notice (show) that $P(W=0) = P(W=1)=frac12$ and (important, and not so trivial) $W$ is independent of $X$.



$$begin{align}P(Zle z) &= P(Z le z cap W=0) + P(Z le z cap W=1) \
&= P(Z le z mid W=0) P(W=0) + P(Z le z mid W=1)P(W=1)\
&= P(X le z mid W=0) frac12 + P(-X le z mid W=1)frac12\
&= P(X le z ) frac12 + P(X ge -z )frac12\
&= frac12 ( F_X(z ) + (1- F_X(-z))\
&= F_X(z )
end{align}$$



That $W$ is independent of $X$ is intuitive by symmetry. A little more formally:
$$P(W=1 | X=x) =begin{cases}
P(Yge 0)=frac12 & {rm if hskip 3mm} x ge 0\
P(Y<0)=frac12 & {rm if hskip 3mm} x < 0\
end{cases}$$

Hence $P(W | X) = P(W)$ , and $W,X$ are independent.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 17 at 2:43

























answered Nov 16 at 22:03









leonbloy

39.7k645106




39.7k645106












  • Thanks for answering! That's very helpful. However, I'm still a little bit confused about whether W and X are independent. My thought is that whether xy are positive or negative has nothing to do with the distribution of f(x). Do you have a better explanation?
    – Araceli
    Nov 16 at 23:54










  • @Araceli I added a possible explanation
    – leonbloy
    Nov 17 at 2:44


















  • Thanks for answering! That's very helpful. However, I'm still a little bit confused about whether W and X are independent. My thought is that whether xy are positive or negative has nothing to do with the distribution of f(x). Do you have a better explanation?
    – Araceli
    Nov 16 at 23:54










  • @Araceli I added a possible explanation
    – leonbloy
    Nov 17 at 2:44
















Thanks for answering! That's very helpful. However, I'm still a little bit confused about whether W and X are independent. My thought is that whether xy are positive or negative has nothing to do with the distribution of f(x). Do you have a better explanation?
– Araceli
Nov 16 at 23:54




Thanks for answering! That's very helpful. However, I'm still a little bit confused about whether W and X are independent. My thought is that whether xy are positive or negative has nothing to do with the distribution of f(x). Do you have a better explanation?
– Araceli
Nov 16 at 23:54












@Araceli I added a possible explanation
– leonbloy
Nov 17 at 2:44




@Araceli I added a possible explanation
– leonbloy
Nov 17 at 2:44


















 

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