$f_n to f$ then $tilde{f_n}to tilde{f}$ where $tilde{f_n}$ and $tilde{f}$ are the lifting of $f_n$ and $f$.











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Let $p:(mathbb{R}^2,tilde{u})to (mathbb{R}^2setminus{0},u_0) $ be a covering map and let $f_n:(I^2,u)to (mathbb{R}^2setminus{0},u_0)$ be a sequence of function which converges uniformly to $f$ on every compact subset of $I^2=[0,1]times [0,1]$. Let $tilde{f_n}$ and $tilde{f}$ be unique lifting of $f_n$ and $f$. Then is it true that $tilde{f_n}to tilde{f}$ uniformly on each compact subset of $I^2$?










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    Let $p:(mathbb{R}^2,tilde{u})to (mathbb{R}^2setminus{0},u_0) $ be a covering map and let $f_n:(I^2,u)to (mathbb{R}^2setminus{0},u_0)$ be a sequence of function which converges uniformly to $f$ on every compact subset of $I^2=[0,1]times [0,1]$. Let $tilde{f_n}$ and $tilde{f}$ be unique lifting of $f_n$ and $f$. Then is it true that $tilde{f_n}to tilde{f}$ uniformly on each compact subset of $I^2$?










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      Let $p:(mathbb{R}^2,tilde{u})to (mathbb{R}^2setminus{0},u_0) $ be a covering map and let $f_n:(I^2,u)to (mathbb{R}^2setminus{0},u_0)$ be a sequence of function which converges uniformly to $f$ on every compact subset of $I^2=[0,1]times [0,1]$. Let $tilde{f_n}$ and $tilde{f}$ be unique lifting of $f_n$ and $f$. Then is it true that $tilde{f_n}to tilde{f}$ uniformly on each compact subset of $I^2$?










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      Let $p:(mathbb{R}^2,tilde{u})to (mathbb{R}^2setminus{0},u_0) $ be a covering map and let $f_n:(I^2,u)to (mathbb{R}^2setminus{0},u_0)$ be a sequence of function which converges uniformly to $f$ on every compact subset of $I^2=[0,1]times [0,1]$. Let $tilde{f_n}$ and $tilde{f}$ be unique lifting of $f_n$ and $f$. Then is it true that $tilde{f_n}to tilde{f}$ uniformly on each compact subset of $I^2$?







      analysis algebraic-topology






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      asked Nov 8 at 14:14









      XYZABC

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          First of all, $I^2$ is itself compact, so uniform convergence on compact subsets is just uniform convergence in this case. Otherwise this is true by standard lifting and compactness arguments. By compactness, the image $f(I^2)$ has some positive distance $r>0$ to $0$, so local inverses of $p$ exist in $r$-neighborhoods of every $y in f(I^2)$. Label these local inverses by points $x in I$ such that $p_x^{-1}$ is the local inverse of $p$ in the $r$-neighborhood of $f(x)$ which is encountered by path lifting $f$ along the straight line from $u$ to $x$. (By simple connectedness this is really independent of the path.) This means that $tilde{f}(x) = p_x^{-1} (f(x))$ for all $x in I^2$. We also have that $p_x^{-1} = p_y^{-1}$ if $|x-y|$ is small enough, in the intersection of the $r$-neighborhoods abour $f(x)$ and $f(y)$. And by compactness we can use finitely many of these inverse branches to construct the lifting, which shows that these are uniformly continuous in some neighborhood of $f(I^2)$. Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough and get uniform convergence.






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          • There are certain things that I have not understood here: (1). Why does the local inverse of $p$ exist in $r$ neighbourhood of $y$. (2). "Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough." This is also unclear to me why do all will go in the same branch after a certain $n$.
            – XYZABC
            Nov 24 at 6:31













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          +25










          First of all, $I^2$ is itself compact, so uniform convergence on compact subsets is just uniform convergence in this case. Otherwise this is true by standard lifting and compactness arguments. By compactness, the image $f(I^2)$ has some positive distance $r>0$ to $0$, so local inverses of $p$ exist in $r$-neighborhoods of every $y in f(I^2)$. Label these local inverses by points $x in I$ such that $p_x^{-1}$ is the local inverse of $p$ in the $r$-neighborhood of $f(x)$ which is encountered by path lifting $f$ along the straight line from $u$ to $x$. (By simple connectedness this is really independent of the path.) This means that $tilde{f}(x) = p_x^{-1} (f(x))$ for all $x in I^2$. We also have that $p_x^{-1} = p_y^{-1}$ if $|x-y|$ is small enough, in the intersection of the $r$-neighborhoods abour $f(x)$ and $f(y)$. And by compactness we can use finitely many of these inverse branches to construct the lifting, which shows that these are uniformly continuous in some neighborhood of $f(I^2)$. Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough and get uniform convergence.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • There are certain things that I have not understood here: (1). Why does the local inverse of $p$ exist in $r$ neighbourhood of $y$. (2). "Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough." This is also unclear to me why do all will go in the same branch after a certain $n$.
            – XYZABC
            Nov 24 at 6:31

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          +25










          First of all, $I^2$ is itself compact, so uniform convergence on compact subsets is just uniform convergence in this case. Otherwise this is true by standard lifting and compactness arguments. By compactness, the image $f(I^2)$ has some positive distance $r>0$ to $0$, so local inverses of $p$ exist in $r$-neighborhoods of every $y in f(I^2)$. Label these local inverses by points $x in I$ such that $p_x^{-1}$ is the local inverse of $p$ in the $r$-neighborhood of $f(x)$ which is encountered by path lifting $f$ along the straight line from $u$ to $x$. (By simple connectedness this is really independent of the path.) This means that $tilde{f}(x) = p_x^{-1} (f(x))$ for all $x in I^2$. We also have that $p_x^{-1} = p_y^{-1}$ if $|x-y|$ is small enough, in the intersection of the $r$-neighborhoods abour $f(x)$ and $f(y)$. And by compactness we can use finitely many of these inverse branches to construct the lifting, which shows that these are uniformly continuous in some neighborhood of $f(I^2)$. Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough and get uniform convergence.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • There are certain things that I have not understood here: (1). Why does the local inverse of $p$ exist in $r$ neighbourhood of $y$. (2). "Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough." This is also unclear to me why do all will go in the same branch after a certain $n$.
            – XYZABC
            Nov 24 at 6:31















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          +25







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          +25




          +25




          First of all, $I^2$ is itself compact, so uniform convergence on compact subsets is just uniform convergence in this case. Otherwise this is true by standard lifting and compactness arguments. By compactness, the image $f(I^2)$ has some positive distance $r>0$ to $0$, so local inverses of $p$ exist in $r$-neighborhoods of every $y in f(I^2)$. Label these local inverses by points $x in I$ such that $p_x^{-1}$ is the local inverse of $p$ in the $r$-neighborhood of $f(x)$ which is encountered by path lifting $f$ along the straight line from $u$ to $x$. (By simple connectedness this is really independent of the path.) This means that $tilde{f}(x) = p_x^{-1} (f(x))$ for all $x in I^2$. We also have that $p_x^{-1} = p_y^{-1}$ if $|x-y|$ is small enough, in the intersection of the $r$-neighborhoods abour $f(x)$ and $f(y)$. And by compactness we can use finitely many of these inverse branches to construct the lifting, which shows that these are uniformly continuous in some neighborhood of $f(I^2)$. Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough and get uniform convergence.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          First of all, $I^2$ is itself compact, so uniform convergence on compact subsets is just uniform convergence in this case. Otherwise this is true by standard lifting and compactness arguments. By compactness, the image $f(I^2)$ has some positive distance $r>0$ to $0$, so local inverses of $p$ exist in $r$-neighborhoods of every $y in f(I^2)$. Label these local inverses by points $x in I$ such that $p_x^{-1}$ is the local inverse of $p$ in the $r$-neighborhood of $f(x)$ which is encountered by path lifting $f$ along the straight line from $u$ to $x$. (By simple connectedness this is really independent of the path.) This means that $tilde{f}(x) = p_x^{-1} (f(x))$ for all $x in I^2$. We also have that $p_x^{-1} = p_y^{-1}$ if $|x-y|$ is small enough, in the intersection of the $r$-neighborhoods abour $f(x)$ and $f(y)$. And by compactness we can use finitely many of these inverse branches to construct the lifting, which shows that these are uniformly continuous in some neighborhood of $f(I^2)$. Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough and get uniform convergence.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 20 at 21:33









          Lukas Geyer

          12.9k1454




          12.9k1454












          • There are certain things that I have not understood here: (1). Why does the local inverse of $p$ exist in $r$ neighbourhood of $y$. (2). "Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough." This is also unclear to me why do all will go in the same branch after a certain $n$.
            – XYZABC
            Nov 24 at 6:31




















          • There are certain things that I have not understood here: (1). Why does the local inverse of $p$ exist in $r$ neighbourhood of $y$. (2). "Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough." This is also unclear to me why do all will go in the same branch after a certain $n$.
            – XYZABC
            Nov 24 at 6:31


















          There are certain things that I have not understood here: (1). Why does the local inverse of $p$ exist in $r$ neighbourhood of $y$. (2). "Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough." This is also unclear to me why do all will go in the same branch after a certain $n$.
          – XYZABC
          Nov 24 at 6:31






          There are certain things that I have not understood here: (1). Why does the local inverse of $p$ exist in $r$ neighbourhood of $y$. (2). "Then you can use these same inverse branches of $p$ to lift $tilde{f_n}$ for $n$ large enough." This is also unclear to me why do all will go in the same branch after a certain $n$.
          – XYZABC
          Nov 24 at 6:31




















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